✈ SACAA Night Rating

⚡ Exam Cheat Sheet

Exam Cheat Sheet — Night Rating

One-page distillation of the highest-yield numbers, rules and mnemonics that show up in the SACAA Night Rating exam. Read it the morning of the exam and again 5 minutes before.

A. Definitions & Privileges

B. Rating Requirements (CAR 61.14.1)

• 10 hr instrument instruction (max 5 hr in FSTD)
• 5 T/O + 5 ldg by night PIC under dual
• Dual cross-country ≥ 150 NM by night, full-stop at 2 different aerodromes away from base
• 5 hr ground theory at Part 141 ATO
• Skills test by Grade I/II instructor

C. VFR Minima (the table the exam loves)

D. Lighting Cheat Card

E. Aircraft Lighting (CAR 91.04.3)

• Nav lights: Red 110° L · Green 110° R · White 140° aft
• Two landing lights OR one with two filaments
• Rotating beacon OR strobe
• Electrical torch per crew member, readily accessible

F. Vision & Adaptation

• Cones: detail/colour/centre — adapt in 5–10 min, 100× more sensitive
• Rods: peripheral, no colour, the night-vision system — adapt in 30 min, 10 000× more sensitive (qbank canonical; some texts cite 100 000×)
• Re-adapt to dark? A few seconds of bright light wipes it out
• Off-centre viewing (10–15° off, shift every 2–3 sec) beats looking direct at night
• Hypoxia degrades night vision from cabin altitude 5 000 ft

G. Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC)

H. Visual Illusions (memory: look-greater → fly-lower)

I. Vestibular Illusions

• Semicircular canal threshold ≈ 2°/sec — slower turns go undetected → the leans / graveyard spiral
• Head-up: forward acceleration feels like pitch-up → reflex push → unintended descent
• Head-down: deceleration feels like pitch-down → reflex pull → unintended climb / stall
• Defence: trust the AH, not the seat-of-pants

J. Instruments — Pitot/Static Blockages

Altimeter "high to low / hot to cold": indicated altitude OVER-reads → you are lower than indicated → CAREFUL / DON'T

K. Met Numbers

• Cloud base AGL (ft) = (Surface Temp − Dew Point) × 410
• Mist: 1 000–5 000 m visibility · Fog: < 1 000 m
• Haze: dry particles, 1 000–5 000 m · Smog: smoke + fog
• Thunderstorm avoidance: ≥ 20 NM from any cell
• Rain ice (most dangerous) under warm fronts: 0°C to −10°C
• Cumuliform icing severe 0°C to −20°C, moderate −20° to −40°
• Stratiform: water droplets to −15°C → icing risk
• Cirrus: ice crystals only, nil/slight icing
• Carb icing range: +5°C to +25°C with humid air; not below −10°C

L. Radio Nav Quick Refs

• VOR: 108–117.95 MHz, 50 kHz spacing → 150 channels; horizontally polarised; ident every 10 sec (no ident → unusable); range: TVOR ≤ 100 NM, standard ≤ 200 NM
• VOR ↔ ILS below 112 MHz: VOR even decimals, ILS odd
• VOR accuracy: total 4° (1° tx + 3° rx); RMI total 6°
• Cone of ambiguity: 40° overhead → flag pops
• DME: UHF 962–1213 MHz; slant distance (not ground); aircraft interrogates, ground replies
• GPS: needs ≥ 4 satellites; trilateration; atomic clock; ionospheric delay correction

M. Math You Must Know

1-in-60 rule:  Track Error / 60 = Distance Off / Distance To Go

Line-of-sight range (NM) = 1.25 × √(RX_ft) + 1.25 × √(TX_ft)

Bank for Rate-1 turn (°) ≈ TAS_kts / 10 + 7

Mag Heading + Relative Bearing = QDM   (mod 360°)

Cloud base AGL (ft) = (T − Td) × 410

N. Mnemonics — keep these on the tip of your tongue

O. Last-Resort Procedure (commit to muscle memory)

Inadvertent IMC at night:
1. Wings level on AH
2. Maintain heading & altitude
3. Rate-1 turn 180° to exit
4. Climb to 1500 ft above highest obstacle within 5 NM of track
5. Squawk 7700, call ATSU
6. Trust the instruments — most night/IMC accidents are pilots doubting the AH

Engine failure at night:
- Same as day, except: turn TOWARDS the airport OR AWAY from congested areas
- Plan emergency approach to an UNLIT area (avoid populated zones, railways, power lines)
- Then standard forced-landing flow

Sources: Morningstar Flight Academy decks nr-1 to nr-7 and air-ex-circuit; Aeroversity Night Rating question bank (790 Q).

⚖️ Part 1 — Air Law & Meteorology

Part 1 — Air Law & Applied Meteorology

Drop-in candidate text for the Google Doc, structured to SA-CATS-FCL 61.

1. Definition of Night

"Night" = period from 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise (CAR Part 1).

A Night Rating is required to fly VFR at night.

2. Night Rating Requirements (CAR 61.14.1)

An applicant for a night rating must:

• (a) Hold a valid pilot licence
• (b) Complete flight training:
• ≥ 10 hr instrument instruction (max 5 hr in approved FSTD)
• ≥ 5 take-offs and 5 landings by night as PIC under dual instruction
• A dual cross-country flight by night of ≥ 150 NM with full-stop landings at 2 different aerodromes away from base
• (c) Complete ground instruction at an approved Part 141 ATO:
• 5 hr theoretical knowledge instruction as per SA-CATS-FCL 61
• (d) Pass the prescribed skills test by a Grade I or II instructor (CAR 61.14.4)

3. Privileges & Limitations (CAR 61.14.5)

The holder of a valid night rating may exercise the privileges of his or her pilot's licence by night.

4. Recency for Carrying Passengers at Night (CAR 91.02.4)

A pilot shall not act as PIC of any aircraft carrying passengers by night unless within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight, the pilot has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings by night in the same class (or similar type and category) of aeroplane.

5. VFR Rules (CAR 91.06.21)

Every VFR flight shall be conducted with:
- Visual reference to the surface by day
- Visual reference to identifiable objects by night
- At no time above more than 3/8ths cloud within a 5 NM radius

VFR minima — visibility & cloud distance

Outside controlled airspaces — Class C/F/G

• At and above 10 000 ft MSL (Class C/F/G): Vis 8 km, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontal / 1000 ft vertical
• Below 10 000 ft and above 3 000 ft AMSL (or 1 000 ft above terrain, whichever is higher): Vis 5 km, distance 1500 m horizontal / 1000 ft vertical
• At or below 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000 ft above terrain (Class C): Vis 5 km, distance 1500 m horizontal / 1000 ft vertical
• At or below 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000 ft above terrain (Class F/G): Vis 5 km (was previously 1.5 km), clear of cloud and surface in sight

6. Special VFR (CAR 91.06.22)

Special VFR may be conducted within a CTR with ATC clearance:
- By day only — NO Special VFR at night
- Cloud ceiling ≥ 600 ft, visibility ≥ 1 500 m
- Aircraft equipped with two-way radio for the appropriate ATSU frequency
- Comply with ATSU instructions when leaving CTR

7. PIC Duties for Night Flight

The PIC shall:
- Ensure RVR/visibility ≥ minimum in T/O direction
- Ensure flight crew properly qualified for the operation
- Ensure adequate aerodrome available for take-off, en-route, and destination
- Check NOTAM / AIC / IAIP for adequacy of aerodromes, nav aids, comm
- Coordinate with ATSU pre-T/O for any unserviceability
- Advise ATSU of any inadequacies encountered en route
- During critical phase of flight: no distraction; no non-essential duties
- Flight deck door (if equipped) closed and locked
- For unlawful interference: notify ATSU, attempt to land at nearest suitable, report to Director

8. Equipment Required for VFR Flight (CAR 91.04.4)

For all VFR flight, the aircraft must be equipped with:
- (a) Magnetic compass
- (b) Accurate time-piece (hours, minutes, seconds)
- (c) Sensitive pressure altimeter with hectopascal subscale
- (d) Airspeed indicator
- (e) Pressure-altitude reporting transponder if required for designated airspace
- (f) If by night: chart holder in an easily readable position which can be illuminated

Additional equipment for single-pilot under IMC or at night (CAR 91.04.6)

• Headset with boom microphone + transmit button without removing hands from controls
• Means of displaying charts in all light conditions
• If under IMC: certified for single-pilot IFR + serviceable autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode

9. Lights to Be Displayed by Aircraft at Night (CAR 91.04.3)

Required equipment

• Serviceable navigation lights
• Two serviceable landing lights OR one with two separately energised filaments
• Serviceable rotating beacon OR strobe light
• Serviceable electrical torch for each required flight crew member, readily accessible

Navigation light angles (CAR 91.06.10)

• Red through angle L (110° to the left, looking forward)
• Green through angle R (110° to the right, looking forward)
• White through angle A (140° rearward = 70° L + 70° R looking aft)

10. Aerodrome Requirements

• Except in emergency, no aircraft shall T/O or land by night unless the aerodrome is equipped for night flying.
• The PIC is responsible for ensuring night flying facilities are available.

Minimum aerodrome lighting for night ops

• Runway EDGE lights
• Runway END lights
• Runway THRESHOLD lights

APPLIED METEOROLOGY

11. Aim & Why It Matters at Night

At night it is difficult to see clouds and other restrictions to visibility. The VFR pilot must exercise caution to avoid flying into clouds or fog and stay VFR at all times. During pre-flight, identify any IMC conditions that could influence the planned flight.

12. Fog Types

Radiation Fog (most common night fog)

• Forms on clear, calm nights when ground cools rapidly by radiation
• Moisture in cool air condenses → fog forms
• Top of fog cools further radiatively, allowing fog to grow vertically

Frontal Fog

• Forms ahead of warm fronts where rain falls into cooler air below
• Associated with frontal cloud systems (Sc, St, Ns, As, Cs, Ci) over ~600 km along the front

Valley Fog (orographic)

• Dense cold air sinks downhill into valleys
• Cold air pools, fog readily forms
• Local to mountain valleys at night

Advection Fog

• Wind pushes warm moist air over a cooler surface (typically sea)
• Cool surface causes moisture to condense → fog

Steam Fog

• Cool air over very warm water
• Warming from beneath causes steam to rise in shallow layer (convection)

13. Localised Winds

• Land and Sea Breezes — driven by land/sea pressure differential
• Day: land heats faster → low pressure over land → sea breeze (sea → land)
• Night: land cools faster → low pressure over sea → land breeze (land → sea)
• Anabatic / Katabatic Winds — slope-driven (anabatic = warm air rising up sun-heated slope; katabatic = cool dense air sinking down slope at night)
• Mountain / Valley Winds — wider-scale drainage flows
• Thermal Winds — driven by temperature gradient with altitude
• Rotor Streaming — turbulence downwind of mountains
• Jet Streams — high-altitude fast bands

14. Airframe Icing — Four Types

Supercooled water = liquid water below 0°C (down to about -40°C). When it strikes an airframe, it freezes. The size of the drop, the temperature, and the surface determine which kind of ice forms.

Hoar Frost

• Forms on parked aircraft on cold, clear nights (or by sublimation in flight when below-freezing aircraft enters warmer moist air)
• Crystalline / frost-like; not glaze
• Must be removed before flight — even a thin layer destroys lift
• Not normally an in-flight build-up problem in cruising flight

Rime Ice

• Forms in small supercooled droplets (e.g. inside stratiform cloud)
• Drops freeze on impact before they can spread
• Opaque, brittle, milky white with a frost-like texture
• Easy to see; lighter than clear ice
• Aerodynamic penalty mainly from surface roughness
• Easier to remove than clear ice

Clear (Glaze) Ice

• Forms in larger supercooled droplets (e.g. inside cumuliform cloud, freezing rain)
• Drops only partially freeze on impact, the rest spreads back along the aerofoil before freezing
• Transparent, glossy, hard, heavy
• Hard to see at first
• Most aerodynamically destructive of the cloud-icing types (changes aerofoil shape)
• Difficult to remove
• Typical formation range: 0°C to -20°C

Rain Ice (NEW — most dangerous)

• Forms when liquid rain falls from a layer of warmer air above into a layer of below-freezing air below — typical under a warm front
• Already-supercooled rain freezes on contact with the airframe
• Builds up extremely fast and over the whole aircraft (not just leading edges)
• Typical formation range: 0°C to -10°C
• Most dangerous form of icing — exit immediately (climb into the warm air above or descend into the warmer air below the front)

Icing risk in flight by cloud type

Cumuliform cloud spans a wide vertical band, so icing can be encountered at many altitudes in, and even just under, the cloud.

15. Engine Icing — Carburettor Icing

Carburettor icing on a piston engine has a two-fold effect:
- Disturbs the fuel/air ratio → richer mixture → can cause the engine to stop (rich-mixture cut)
- Solid ice build-up can prevent throttle movement

Three types of carb icing

Throttle icing
- More likely at lower power settings with a partially-closed butterfly creating a venturi
- The accelerated flow expands adiabatically → temperature drops; if moisture is present, ice forms on the throttle butterfly
- Typical range: +5°C to +25°C OAT (with high humidity); not likely below -10°C

Fuel evaporation icing
- Latent heat of vaporisation cools the fuel/air mixture
- Even initially-warm air can drop well below 0°C inside the carb → ice forms in the body and blocks fuel jets
- Less common than throttle icing

Impact icing
- Occurs when supercooled water droplets freeze on impact on air filters and induction ducts
- Use of alternate air (drawn from inside the engine compartment, warmer and unfiltered) bypasses a blocked filter

Symptoms (in order)

1. Gradual loss of power — fixed-pitch: RPM drops; constant-speed: RPM unchanged but manifold pressure drops (the "throttling" effect)
2. Rougher running as the mixture richens further
3. Complete power loss in the final stage (rich-mixture cut)

Dispersing carb ice with carb heat

• Carb heat directs heated air into the carburettor and disperses ice that has already formed
• Initial reaction: applying carb heat with ice present causes a further drop in RPM (hot air is less dense)
• As the ice melts, RPM rises and stabilises, returning to original setting
• Avoid continuous use of partial carb heat — leads to a rich mixture and can over-heat the cylinder head

16. Nocturnal Thunderstorms

• Particularly hazardous at night because lightning may be the only visual cue that a thunderstorm cell is present
• Avoid by wide margin — at least 20 NM from any cell
• Look for embedded cells in widespread cloud cover

Three stages of a thunderstorm

1. Cumulus / building stage — strong updraughts only, growing vertically
2. Mature stage — coexistent updraughts and downdraughts; downdraughts can reach 2 400 ft/min; gust front at the surface ahead of the storm; roll cloud (storm collar); scud (low ragged cloud); heaviest precipitation, hail, lightning
3. Dissipating / anvil stage — downdraughts dominate; ice-crystal anvil at the top; weakening but still hazardous (lightning, residual turbulence)

Cloud base formula (rule of thumb)

Cloud base AGL (ft) = (Surface Temp °C − Dew Point °C) × 410

Worked example: surface temp 20°C, dew point 17°C → (20 − 17) × 410 = 1 230 ft AGL.

17. Visibility Restrictions Defined

🧠 Part 2 — Physiology & Instruments

Part 2 — Physiological Aspects, Instruments & Scan

Drop-in candidate text for the Google Doc, structured to SA-CATS-FCL 61.

1. Why this matters

At night, the risk of losing visual outside reference is high. The PIC must be able to handle the aircraft with reference to the instruments only, with confidence. This part also leads into the Instrument Rating syllabus.

A. NIGHT VISION

2. The Eye — Cones vs Rods

Implication for night flight: the area of best vision shifts from the centre (day) to a ring around the centre (night) — there is a relative blind spot dead-centre at night.

3. Off-Center Viewing

At night:
- Off-center viewing (looking slightly to one side of an object) is more effective than looking directly at it
- A scanning procedure to permit off-centre viewing should be consciously practised

4. Dark Adaptation

But: eyes adapt back to bright light very fast (a few seconds), losing dark adaptation.

Therefore, when flying at night

• Adapt eyes to the dark prior to flight and keep them adapted
• Avoid exposing them to bright light
• Close one eye when exposed to bright light to preserve adaptation in the other

5. Factors Affecting Night Vision

• Physical condition — fatigue, colds, vitamin deficiency, alcohol, stimulants, smoking, medication can seriously impair vision
• Hypoxia — significant deterioration in night vision can occur at cabin altitudes as low as 5 000 ft

B. NIGHT VISUAL ILLUSIONS

6. Landing Illusions — Summary Table

Memory: Look-greater → fly-lower (and vice versa). Trust the PAPI, not what the runway "looks like".

7. Black-Hole Approach

• Final approach at night (no stars / no moonlight) over water or unlit terrain to a lighted runway beyond which the horizon is not visible
• Perception: high; tendency: lower / shallower approach
• Defence: PAPI + altimeter + DME or GPS — fly the published profile, do not eyeball

8. False Horizon

Lines of city lights, slanted cloud formations, or lights on slanted terrain can create a false visual horizon, leading to disorientation. Prevention: keep a good scan on the AH to confirm correct horizon.

9. Autokinesis

A stationary point of light in a dark visual field appears to move when stared at. Avoid by scanning rather than fixating.

C. SPATIAL DISORIENTATION (Vestibular Illusions)

10. Anatomy refresher

Motion sensing is in the inner ear — semicircular canals (rotation, via endolymph fluid deflecting cupola hairs) plus otolith organ (linear acceleration / gravity).

The semicircular canals have a threshold of about 2°/sec — slower turns go undetected.

11. The Leans

A sudden return to level after a gradual prolonged turn that went unnoticed (because it was below the 2°/sec threshold). Levelling the wings now feels like banking the opposite way. The pilot may lean in the direction of the original turn in a corrective attempt to regain perceived vertical.

12. Graveyard Spiral (associated with return to level)

1. Pilot enters a bank/turn (e.g. left), and the turn continues for some time
2. Fluid in the canals matches → no longer feels turning
3. Pilot attempts to level → feels turning/banking the opposite way
4. If the pilot believes the false sensation, they bank back to counter (re-entering the original turn, now tighter) → tighter spiral
5. Without an instrument cross-check, the spiral continues to ground impact

13. Head Up / Head Down Illusions (Otolith)

• Head up: sudden forward linear acceleration in level flight feels like the nose is pitching up → reflex is to push the yoke forward → unintended descent
• Head down: sudden linear deceleration (air braking, lowering flaps, decreasing power) in level flight feels like the nose is pitching down → reflex is to pitch up → unintended climb / stall

Defence in all of the above: scan instruments (AH especially) — trust the panel, not the seat of your pants.

D. HYPOXIA

14. Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC)

Cause: oxygen partial pressure decreases with altitude (Sea level 14.7 PSI → 18 000 ft 7.34 PSI).

For night ops specifically: night vision starts deteriorating from 5 000 ft cabin altitude.

E. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

15. The Six Primary Flight Instruments

Arranged in the standard "T":

Pressure instruments (ASI, Altimeter, VSI)

Connected to the Pitot tube and the static port. The Pitot tube provides total (dynamic + static) pressure; the static port provides static. ALT-STATIC alternate source available if static port blocks.

Gyro instruments

• Attitude Indicator (AH) — vacuum-driven gyro, shows pitch and bank
• Direction Indicator (DI) — vacuum-driven gyro, must be reset to compass periodically
• Turn Co-ordinator — electric gyro, shows rate of turn (Rate 1 = 3°/sec = 360° in 2 min) and slip/skid (ball)

Magnetic Compass

The fundamental heading reference; subject to acceleration / turning errors (UNOS / ANDS).

16. Airspeed Indicator (ASI)

Errors (memory: IPCD)

• Instrument
• Position
• Compressibility
• Density

Markings

• Red line (Vne) — never-exceed speed
• Yellow — caution range
• Vno — max structural cruising speed (top of green / start of yellow)
• Green — normal operating range
• White — flap operating range
• Vfe — max speed flaps extended (top of white)
• Vs0 — stalling speed, landing config (gear down, full flap, power off)
• Vs1 — stalling speed, clean (gear up if retractable, flaps up, power off)

17. Altimeter

Errors / cautions

• Subscale must be at correct setting (QNH, or 1013.25 hPa above transition)
• Altimeter over-reads or under-reads when flying from one pressure / temperature regime to another:
• High to Low — CAREFUL (flying from high pressure to low pressure: altimeter over-reads → you are lower than indicated)
• Hot to Cold — DON'T (flying from hot air to cold air: altimeter over-reads → you are lower than indicated)

18. Pitot-Static System

The Pitot tube feeds pressure to the ASI only. The static line feeds the ASI, Altimeter, and VSI. Pitot heat prevents icing in IMC / freezing conditions. Alternate static source provides an in-cabin tap if the external port blocks.

Pitot tube blockage

• ASI reads correct only at the altitude where the blockage occurred
• Climbing → ASI over-reads
• Descending → ASI under-reads
• (Static still feeds Altimeter and VSI, so they stay correct)

Static port blockage

• ASI: over-reads at lower altitudes, under-reads at higher altitudes
• Altimeter: stuck — indicates altitude at which the blockage occurred
• VSI: indicates zero
• Mitigation: alternate static (in-cabin air); proper pre-flight is vital

VSI errors

• Can give temporary erroneous indications during gust / turbulence
• Delayed indication — there is a lag between attitude change and the displayed VSI

F. GYRO INSTRUMENTS — DETAIL

19. Gyro Properties

The AH, DI and Turn Co-ordinator rely on two gyroscopic properties:
- Rigidity in space — a spinning gyro resists changes to its orientation
- Precession — a force applied to a gyro is felt 90° later in the direction of rotation

Power sources (typical light-aircraft layout)

• AH and DI: engine-driven vacuum pump (via vacuum air filter, vacuum relief valve, suction gauge)
• Turn Co-ordinator: electric (separate failure mode — partial-panel scenario when vacuum fails)

AH (Artificial Horizon)

• Vertical spin axis, gives pitch and bank
• Acceleration error: during deceleration the AH shows a slight pitch-down (and vice versa) and a slight roll — overcome by reference to other instruments
• Older instruments have bank/roll limits (e.g. ±60° pitch / ±100° roll); newer instruments don't
• Must be checked before take-off and during taxi

DI (Directional Indicator)

• Lateral spin axis — must be aligned to a meridian by setting it to the magnetic compass
• Mechanical drift — bearing wear → drift after a number of turns
• Apparent drift — gyro stays rigid in space while Earth rotates underneath → caging/resetting every 10 minutes is vital
• Reset against the compass during straight, level, unaccelerated flight only

Turn Co-ordinator

• Lateral horizontal spin axis with the gimbal axis at 30° from the longitudinal axis — senses both rate of roll and rate of turn
• Rate-1 turn = 360° in 2 minutes = 3°/sec
• Bank angle for a Rate-1 turn ≈ TAS (kts) ÷ 10 + 7
• Ball indicates slip / skid (balance)

20. Magnetic Compass — Turning & Acceleration Errors

In the southern hemisphere (most exam variants), the rules are mirrored from the northern hemisphere, but the standard mnemonic to memorise is:

• UNOS — Undershoot North, Overshoot South (turning errors)
• ANDS — Accelerate North, Decelerate South (acceleration errors on E/W headings)

NB for SA students: compass dip in the southern hemisphere reverses the polarity of the lag/lead. Most exam questions are still framed with NH conventions; check the question wording carefully.

G. THE INSTRUMENT SCAN — DETAILED PROCEDURE

21. Basic Scan Discipline

• Relaxed posture, trimmed aircraft — fight the workload, not the controls
• All instruments must be scanned continuously — spend a couple of seconds on each, then move on; never fixate
• Scan with eyes, not head
• Emphasis on primary instruments for the manoeuvre, but engine/accessory instruments must not be neglected
• Gentle control inputs — DO NOT over-control (the lag in the instruments will mask your output)

CCHAT — the correction procedure

Use this sequence whenever an instrument shows deviation:

1. Change — small input on the control column or power lever
2. Check — arrest the control movement
3. Hold — wait for the instrument to settle (especially ASI / VSI)
4. Adjust — small further input if needed
5. Trim — trim off any control pressure

Don't "chase" airspeed or VSI. The needle leads the actual condition by a small amount, then catches up. Wait one breath before adjusting again.

22. Straight & Level

• Set cruise power and the level pitch attitude on the AH
• Primary scan: AH ↔ ALT, AH ↔ DI
• Secondary scan: AH ↔ VSI, AH ↔ BALL, AH ↔ ASI
• A trend in pitch shows on the VSI first, then the altimeter (in turbulence, the VSI fluctuates → trust the altimeter)
• Heading deviation on DI: check turn co-ordinator + ball, then correct with bank ≈ ½ × degrees to be corrected
• Power changes only if altitude error > 200 ft

Speed change in level flight

To fly faster:
1. Add power
2. Ease control column forward to avoid climb
3. Cross-check Altimeter, VSI, AH
4. At the assigned speed, adjust power and keep VSI neutral
5. Trim

To fly slower: same procedure in reverse.

Lowering flaps: ease the control column forward (flaps cause a balloon); cross-check Altimeter, VSI, AH; trim.

23. Climbing

• Apply climb power
• Raise the little aeroplane on the AH to about one bar above the horizon
• Maintain heading on the DI and wings level on the AH
• Check ASI for correct climb speed
• For a fixed ROC (e.g. 500 ft/min) emphasise the VSI (airspeed will float)
• Rule of thumb: 1 inch of manifold pressure ≈ 100 ft/min of ROC

Levelling off:
- Lead the level-off by about 10 % of ROC (e.g. at 500 ft/min, start lowering the nose ~50 ft below target)
- Use the AH to return to S&L; adjust power and trim

Scan during climb:
- Primary: AH ↔ DI, AH ↔ ASI
- Secondary entering: AH ↔ BALL, AH ↔ POWER (checks)
- Secondary maintaining: AH ↔ ALT, AH ↔ BALL, AH ↔ VSI

24. Descending

• Reduce power while maintaining the S&L pitch attitude until descent speed is reached
• Lower the little aircraft on the AH to just below the horizon bar
• Check VSI for the desired ROD
• Airspeed with pitch, ROD with power

Levelling off:
- Anticipate by 20 % of ROD (e.g. at 500 ft/min, start raising the nose ~100 ft above target)
- Raise the AH to the horizon, reset cruise power, trim

Scan during descent:
- Primary: AH ↔ DI, AH ↔ ASI
- Secondary entering: AH ↔ BALL, AH ↔ VSI
- Secondary maintaining: AH ↔ ALT, AH ↔ BALL, AH ↔ VSI

25. Turns

Rate-1 turn entry & maintenance

• Apply aileron in the direction of turn while focusing on the AH for the desired bank angle
• Check VSI for pitch and turn co-ordinator for turn rate + balance
• During the turn: scan AH ↔ Turn Co-ordinator ↔ VSI ↔ DI
• Roll out 5–10° before the assigned heading on a Rate-1 turn; 20° for a steep turn

Scan during a Rate-1 turn:
- Primary: AH ↔ VSI, AH ↔ ALT
- Secondary: AH ↔ BALL + Turn Co-ordinator, AH ↔ DI (for rolling out)

Steep turn

• Bank > 30° → significant loss of vertical lift → add power as you increase bank
• Primary: AH ↔ VSI, AH ↔ ALT
• Secondary entering: AH ↔ BALL, AH ↔ POWER
• Secondary maintaining: AH ↔ BALL + Turn Co-ordinator, AH ↔ ASI, AH ↔ DI (for rolling out)

Climbing / descending turn

• Monitor AH, Turn Co-ordinator + ball, ASI, VSI
• Toward the end of the turn shift attention to Altimeter and DI

Timed climbing / descending turn (limited or as briefed)

• Rate-1 turn + 500 ft/min ROC/D
• Monitor Turn Co-ordinator + ball for rate of turn and VSI for ROC/D
• DI: 90° per 30 seconds (Rate-1)
• Altimeter: 250 ft per 30 seconds (at 500 ft/min)

26. Limited Panel (AH and DI failed)

• Turn Co-ordinator becomes the primary bank indication
• VSI and ASI are the pitch indication
• Compass can be used for direction but is unstable in turns — execute all turns on clock + Rate-1

Scan:
- Primary: ASI ↔ Turn Co-ordinator, ASI ↔ VSI
- Secondary: ASI ↔ ALT, ASI ↔ Compass

27. Recovery from Unusual Attitudes

Spiral dive — full panel

1. Close throttle
2. Wings level on AH
3. Ease back on the control column until the AH is on the horizon
4. Apply full power and climb to regain altitude

Scan during recovery — Primary: AH ↔ ASI, AH ↔ VSI · Secondary: AH ↔ ALT, AH ↔ Ball

Spiral dive — limited panel

1. Close throttle
2. Wings level with the Turn Co-ordinator
3. Ease back on the control column until the VSI checks or the altimeter stops descending
4. Move control column slightly forward to regain S&L

Scan — Primary: ASI ↔ Turn Co-ordinator, ASI ↔ VSI · Secondary: ASI ↔ ALT, ASI ↔ Compass / Clock

Stall — full panel

1. Increase power
2. Apply forward pressure on the control column until the AH is on the horizon
3. Wings level on AH

Scan — Primary: AH ↔ ASI, AH ↔ VSI · Secondary: AH ↔ ALT, AH ↔ DI

Stall — limited panel

1. Increase power
2. Apply forward pressure until the VSI checks or the altimeter stops
3. Wings level with the Turn Co-ordinator

💡 Part 3 — Lighting & Circuits

Part 3 — Lighting Systems & Night Circuits

Drop-in candidate text for the Google Doc, structured to SA-CATS-FCL 61.

A. AERODROME LIGHTING SYSTEMS

1. Taxiway Lighting

• Blue edge lights — taxiway edges
• Green centreline lights — inground, mark the taxiway centreline
• Red stop bar lights — illuminated at runway holding points; do not cross while red

2. Runway Lighting

• Green threshold lights — start / "approach" end of the runway
• White edge lights — full length of runway (the bulk of the markings you see)
• Red end lights — far end of the runway
• Centreline lights (CAT II/III runways): white in centre section; alternating red/white for the last 2000 ft; all red for the last 1000 ft

3. Approach Light System (ALS)

• Provides directional visual guidance to landing aircraft
• Not part of the landing system itself
• Many configurations (ALSF, MALSR, SALS etc.) — covered in IFR theory in more depth
• Always contiguous with green threshold lights at the start of the runway

4. Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)

2-bar system. Memory: "Red over white, you're all right."

5. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)

4-bar system. Typical glidepath 2.5° – 3.0°.

6. Obstruction Lighting

• Marked or lit to warn pilots of presence by day and night
• Found both on and off the airport
• Three configurations:
• Red obstruction lights — flashing or steady red at night
• High intensity white — flashing high intensity by day, intensity reduced for night
• Dual lighting — flashing red beacon + steady red at night, high intensity white by day

7. Aerodrome Identification Beacons

Rotating at constant speed → flashes at regular intervals. Coloured to identify type of landing area:

8. Information Sources

• AIP — Volume 3 (Aerodromes) — primary reference for airfield lighting
• Aerodrome charts (e.g. FACT for Cape Town Intl) — show the runway lighting fit per runway

Aerodrome chart abbreviations

• ALS = Approach Lighting System
• PAPI = Precision Approach Path Indicator (with angle, e.g. 3° or 3.2°)
• RTHL = Runway Threshold Lights (green)
• REDL = Runway Edge Lights (white)
• RENL = Runway End Lights (red)

9. Control of Airport Lighting

Manned airports

• Controlled by ATC
• The pilot may request specific lighting on/off and a specified intensity if available

Unmanned airports — four mechanisms

• Timer — lights on for a fixed duration
• Light sensor switch — automatic at dusk
• Ground personnel — manual switch
• Pilot-controlled lighting (PCL) — pilot uses radio on a specified frequency and clicks the PTT a specified number of times to activate / step intensity

B. AIRCRAFT LIGHTING (recap from Part 1)

External (CAR 91.04.3)

• Serviceable navigation lights (red 110° L, green 110° R, white 140° aft)
• Two serviceable landing lights OR one with two separately energised filaments
• Serviceable rotating beacon OR strobe light
• Serviceable electrical torch for each required crew member, readily accessible

Internal cockpit lighting

• Use red lighting in the cockpit to preserve dark adaptation
• A red flashlight is the chart-reading tool of choice

C. NIGHT NAVIGATIONAL PLANNING

10. Pre-flight Planning

• Thorough review of weather reports and forecasts (METAR, TAF, SIGMET, area forecasts)
• Select appropriate aeronautical charts
• Track lines drawn in BLACK (more distinguishable on a backlit chart at night vs coloured pens)
• Use prominently lighted checkpoints: lights of cities and towns, airport beacons, major highway traffic
• Use Radio Navigation Aids as waypoints (VOR, DME, GPS)
• For terrain clearance use 1 500 ft above the highest obstacle within 5 NM from track (CAR-derived)
• Avoid high terrain — consider the aircraft's glide performance
• Note serviceability of radio nav aids, communication and lighting facilities — AIP, AIP supl., NOTAMS, PIB
• Fuel planning and alternate aerodrome selection are even more important at night
• For FACT (Cape Town Intl), file the flight plan in advance and send the slot request form for arrival/departure

11. Orientation & Navigation in Flight

• Monitor position, time estimates, and fuel consumed
• Ensure correct altimeter setting (QNH below transition / 1013.25 hPa above)
• Monitor engine instruments more thoughtfully than by day
• Watch the ammeter regularly as part of FREDAS checks (Fuel, Radio, Engine, Direction, Altitude, Settings)
• Dimming lights and/or weak radio signals → IMMINENT ELECTRICAL FAILURE — divert / land soon
• Delay descent until you have positive ID of destination

D. NIGHT CIRCUIT PROCEDURE

(Full procedural deck — see air-ex-circuit.md for the start-to-stop checklist flow.)

📡 Part 4 — Radio Navigation

Part 4 — Radio Navigation Aids

Drop-in candidate text for the Google Doc. Sourced from nr-4 (52-page Radio Nav deck).

A. GPS (Global Positioning System)

1. Origin & Principle

• Originally Navstar GPS — satellite-based radio navigation system, owned by US Government, operated by US Space Force
• One of several Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS)
• Provides geolocation and time information to a receiver anywhere on/near Earth with unobstructed line of sight to ≥ 4 GPS satellites

2. Other GNSS Constellations

• Russia: GLONASS
• Europe: GALILEO
• China: BEIDOU
• India: IRNSS (formerly NavIC)

3. How GPS Works (5 steps)

1. Trilateration from satellites is the basis of the system
2. To trilaterate, GPS measures distance using travel time of a radio signal
3. To measure travel time accurately, GPS satellites carry very accurate atomic clocks
4. Receiver also needs to know each satellite's location (broadcast in the navigation message)
5. As the GPS signal travels through the ionosphere and Earth's atmosphere, it gets delayed — must be corrected for

B. DME (Distance Measuring Equipment)

4. Definition

• A navigation beacon, usually coupled with a VOR beacon (VOR/DME)
• Aircraft sends an interrogation signal; the DME ground station replies after a fixed delay
• The aircraft computes distance from the signal delay using the speed of light

5. Frequencies (UHF band)

• Interrogation Frequency: 1025 MHz to 1150 MHz
• Reply Frequency: 962 MHz to 1213 MHz

6. DME Reads Slant Distance

• DME is measured in slant distance, not ground distance
• Closer overhead the station → larger slant-vs-ground discrepancy (e.g. 12 000 ft directly overhead a station shows ~2 NM DME, with ground distance ≈ 0)

7. Operation Steps

1. Interrogation & Reply — aircraft DME interrogator sends a series of UHF pulses
2. Ground station's reply — DME ground station receives the interrogation and responds with pulses + a unique ident code
3. Time measurement — aircraft measures the round-trip "time of flight"
4. Distance calculation — at the speed of light, time → distance
5. Display — calculated distance shown on the navigation display in NM

C. VOR (VHF Omni-directional Radio Range)

8. Principle of Operation

VOR determines bearing information by comparing the phase angle between two signals:

The phase difference between the reference and variable signals corresponds directly to the magnetic bearing FROM the station (the radial).

Important: The reference signal never leads or lags — it is the reference. Only the variable signal leads or lags.

9. VOR Summary Card

• Frequency band: VHF, 108 MHz – 117.95 MHz, 150 channels (108 MHz used for testing)
• 108–112 MHz shared with ILS:
• VOR uses even decimals (108.20, 108.25 MHz)
• ILS uses odd decimals (108.30, 108.35 MHz)
• Transmission: horizontally polarized — not affected by static
• Range (direct-wave line-of-sight):
• Terminal VOR (TVOR): ≤ 100 NM
• Standard VOR: ≤ 200 NM
• Identification: every 10 seconds. If there is no ident → the VOR cannot be used.
• Types: High Altitude VOR, Low Altitude VOR, Terminal VOR (TVOR)

10. VOR Accuracy

• Total receiver accuracy: 4° (1° transmitter + 3° indicator)
• Dual-pointer RMI accuracy: total error only 6°

D. VOR Errors

11. Five Categories

• Site Errors — caused by buildings, obstacles, uneven ground in the vicinity of the station
• Propagation Errors — caused by uneven terrain en route to the aircraft. Known as scalloping
• Interference Errors — caused by two stations on the same frequency being received by the aircraft
• Aircraft Equipment Errors — total 4° (1° transmitter + 3° instrument); on dual-pointer RMI total 6°
• Cone of Ambiguity — A VOR transmits in a horizontal plane up to 70°, leaving a 40° overhead area with no signal. When overhead the VOR, the receiver gets no signal and the VOR flags

E. Aircraft Equipment for VOR

12. Components

• VOR receiver (common stack: Bendix/King KX 155, Garmin GTX 327, Garmin G3X)
• VOR antenna (typically tail-mounted, V-shaped)
• Course Deviation Indicator (CDI)
• Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) or Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)

13. CDI (Course Deviation Indicator) — Components

• Omni-Bearing Selector (OBS) and display window — the OBS is used to select the required radial to fly
• TO / FROM indicator — indicates whether the selected radial would take the aircraft toward or away from the VOR station. NB: does not indicate that the pilot is currently flying toward or away from the station
• Course Deviation Bar / Needle — left/right deviation; a command instrument — always follow the needle
• Angular Dot Calibration Scale — represents angular displacement in degrees from the selected radial. Indicators have 5, 4, or 2 dots. Full-scale deflection from centre to last dot is always 10° for a VOR.
• 5-dot scale: each dot = 2°

14. CDI Operation Rules

• Not heading sensitive — CDI deflection depends only on aircraft position vs. selected radial, not on aircraft heading
• Aircraft heading must be within 90° either side of the selected radial — outside that, sensing reverses
• If the aircraft is on the same side of the station as the selected radial, the FROM flag appears
• Use variation AT THE STATION for any conversion — the work is done at the station
• Do NOT use deviation with a VOR — the aircraft compass is not used in any VOR calculation

15. CDI Sketch Method (for exam questions)

For any "What does the CDI show?" question:
- Draw the station at the centre
- Draw the OBS-selected radial to the right (this is the reference course)
- The opposite direction is the reciprocal course (left)
- Mark the four quadrants: TO above and below the selected line, FROM to the right; TO to the left

F. RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)

16. RMI Operation

• The compass card rotates and shows the aircraft's compass heading under the lubber line
• The pointer shows the angle measured clockwise between the nose of the aircraft and the station — this is the Relative Bearing
• Head of pointer = QDM (magnetic bearing TO the station)
• Tail of pointer = QDR (magnetic bearing FROM the station, i.e. the radial)
• The compass card must work, otherwise the VOR needle will not point to the station
• For VOR, only variation at the station must be used. Deviation is not required as the instrument automatically compensates for it

17. Bearing Math

Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing = QDM   (mod 360°)

G. VOR Test Facility (VOT)

18. Calibration Tolerances

A VOT transmits a 360° radial. Use it on the ground to verify the receiver:

H. Common Exam Question Patterns

19. Twin-Pointer VOR / RMI Question (with variation)

When a VOR and a co-located NDB are at an aerodrome with one variation, and the aircraft is at a different variation:

• Convert the given magnetic bearing to True Bearing at the station (use the variation at the aerodrome)
• Convert TB to the reciprocal (±180°) for what the aircraft would see relative to itself
• Convert that True Bearing back to magnetic, but using the variation at the aircraft for the ADF needle and the variation at the station for the VOR needle

Worked example from the deck:
- VOR + NDB co-located, variation at station 17° W; aircraft variation 19° W; aircraft on magnetic bearing 332° from station
- TB at station = 332° − 17° W = 315° T
- Reciprocal = 315° − 180° = 135° T (this is the relative direction at the aircraft)
- ADF reading (uses aircraft variation): 135° + 19° W = 154°
- VOR reading (uses station variation): 135° + 17° W = 152°

20. Max Range of Two Co-Frequency VOR Stations

Both stations on same frequency → aircraft must be halfway between them to receive both, at sufficient altitude to see both above the horizon.

Line-of-sight formula:

Range_NM = 1.25 × √(RX_height_ft) + 1.25 × √(TX_height_ft)

Worked example:
- VORs GGV and PEV are 161 NM apart, both at 200 ft AMSL → halfway distance is 80.5 NM
- 80.5 = 1.25 × √(X_ft) + 1.25 × √(200) = 1.25 × √X + 17.675
- 1.25 × √X = 62.825 → √X = 50.26 → X ≈ 2 526 ft AMSL minimum altitude

21. The 1-in-60 Rule (Track Error)

Track Error (°)        Distance Off (NM)
──────────────  =  ─────────────────────
       60              Distance To Go (NM)

Worked example:
- VOR/DME defines centre of an airway 10 NM wide (5 NM either side)
- At DME 180 NM, aircraft has a 2-dot fly-left on a 5-dot CDI = 4° track error
- 4 / 60 = Distance Off / 180 → Distance Off = 12 NM from centre, 7 NM outside the boundary

22. Leading & Lagging of VOR Signals

• Reference signal is the reference — it never leads or lags
• The variable signal can lead (counter-clockwise of reference) or lag (clockwise of reference) the reference
• The phase angle between them = bearing FROM the station (radial)
• To get the bearing TO the station, add or subtract 180° from the radial

Worked example:
- "If the variable signal lags the reference by 40°, what is the bearing TO the VOR?"
- Lag = clockwise from reference → radial = 040° (away from station)
- Bearing TO station = 040° + 180° = 220°

I. Inadvertent IMC at Night

When VMC is suddenly lost (e.g. flew into cloud or fog at night):

• Immediate priority: keep the wings level on the AH
• Maintain heading and altitude
• Begin a Rate-1 turn 180° to exit the IMC the way you came in
• Climb to safe terrain altitude if needed (1500 ft above highest obstacle within 5 NM of track)
• Squawk 7700 if necessary; ATSU contact for assistance
• Trust the instruments — most night/IMC accidents start with the pilot doubting the AH and following sensory illusions instead

❓ Q&A Compendium

Q&A Compendium

All 790 questions from the Aeroversity bank with just the correct answer, grouped by topic. Read top to bottom — the question is the prompt, the indented line below is the answer.

Use ⌘F to search. Each topic has a stable Q-number (e.g. Icing Q5) so you can jot wrong-answers in your notes and find them again.

Full multiple-choice + explanations live in the per-quiz catalogues.

Topics

Adaptation

12 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. Before a night flight, a pilot should avoid bright lights for at least:

30 minutes

2. Dark adaptation of the eyes may take up to:

30 min

3. Generally, the time required for dark adaptation is:

30 min

4. How much time do the eyes need to fully adjust to a dark environment after a exposure to bright light?

Approximately 30 minutes

5. It is advisable to decrease the intensity or brightness of internal cockpit lighting when flying at night because:

bright lights inside the cockpit will reduce night vision

6. Night vision:

requires up to 30 minutes to reach its best performance

7. The approximate time required for complete adaptation of the eye when moving from darkness to light is:

10 seconds

8. The eye can fully adjust to:

high levels of illumination in 10 seconds and darkness in 30 minutes

9. The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:

25 – 30 minutes

10. The time required for complete adaptation is:

for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 min

11. What should a pilot do to prepare and adapt his/her eyes for night flying?

Avoid exposure to bright white lights at least 30 minutes before commencing the flight

12. With regards to night (dark) adaptation, it is recommended that pilots should avoid looking at bright white lights in flight and for a period preceding the flight of at least:

30 min

↑ back to topics

Advection Fog

19 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. Advection fog can be formed when:

warm moist air flows over a colder surface

2. Advection fog has to do with:

The horizontal transfer of heat

3. Advection fog is caused by:

air, cooler by at least 10°C, moving over a moist surface

4. Advection fog is most likely to be found:

over coastal areas

5. Advection is the:

Horizontal motion of air

6. Advection is:

horizontal motion of air

7. Cooling of the earth's surface during the night:

is greatest during clear skies over rocky or desert areas

8. How is advection fog formed?

Warm moist air moving across a cold surface and getting cooled from below

9. The formation of advection fog is often caused by:

Warm moist air under the influence of light to moderate winds being cooled to below its dewpoint by flowing across a much colder surface

10. The formation of advection fog is often caused by:

A warm moist air mass under the influence of moderate winds being cooled to below its dew point by flowing over a much colder surface

11. The type of fog that develops rapidly by day and by night:

Advection fog

12. Warm, moist air accompanied by a light wind which is moving over a cold surface may result in:

advection fog

13. What are the conditions required for the formation of advection fog?

Light wind with an airmass moving towards a colder surface

14. What are the ideal conditions for the formation of advection fog are?

a light wind blowing moist air over a cold surface

15. What type of fog is most commonly found along the West coast of South Africa?

Advection

16. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?

Moist warm air moving over a cold surface

17. Which of the following processes can produce both fog and clouds?

Advection

18. Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?

A mild moist air stream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15kts

19. Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?

It can be formed suddenly by day or night

↑ back to topics

Aircraft and Obstacle Lighting

38 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

on the ground when the engines are running

2. During a flight at night, you notice a red light on the left and green on the right in front of and at the same altitude as the aircraft. What is the course of the other aircraft?

Flying away directly in front

3. During a flight at night, you notice a steady red light on the right and a steady green light on the left of another aircraft in front and at the same altitude of your aircraft. The other aircraft is:

Flying straight towards you

4. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, observes an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. He will first see the:

red steady light

5. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:

green light

6. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the:

green steady light

7. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right, will first see the:

red steady light

8. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. Which way is the other aircraft flying?

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

9. During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. Which way is the other aircraft flying?

The other aircraft is flying away from you

10. During flight at night, the pilot of aircraft ‘A’ observes the green navigational light of aircraft ‘B’ at approximately the same level/altitude. Select the most correct answer:

Aircraft ‘B’ should give way to aircraft ‘A’

11. During flight at night, you observe two navigation lights from an aircraft ahead of you, a red on the right and a green on the left, increasing in size. This indicates another aircraft:

Heading straight towards you

12. From sunset to sunrise an aircraft in flight shall display:

Anti-collision lights intended to attract attention of other aircraft, and navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer. No other lights shall be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for the navigation lights

13. High intensity obstacle lights should be:

Flashing white

14. Lights to be displayed by heavier than air aircraft at night are:

Red on the left, green on the right and white on the tail

15. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

Fixed red

16. Navigation lights located on the wingtips for use at night should be visible above and below the horizontal plane, and from directly ahead through an angle of:

110°

17. The aft navigation light, which is required to be displayed on the tail of an aircraft by night shall be:

White

18. The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:

110°

19. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is:

110°

20. The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation / position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is:

140°

21. The external aircraft lighting required for a VFR flight at night:

Anti-collision beacon, navigation lights and landing light

22. The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti-collision beacon and the red Navigation light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 030, the bearing remaining constant.

there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right

23. The port wing navigation light, which is required to be displayed on an aircraft by night, shall be:

Red

24. The starboard wing navigation light, which is required to be displayed on an aircraft by night, shall be:

Green

25. What colour is the navigation light found on the left wing?

Red

26. What colour is the navigation light found on the right wing?

Green

27. What colour is the navigation light found on the tail?

White

28. What colour is the navigation light on the port (left) wing?

Red

29. What colour is the navigation light on the rear onboard the aircraft?

White

30. What colour is the navigation light on the starboard (right) wing?

Green

31. What is the arc through which the red and green navigation lights of an aircraft can be seen?

110 degrees

32. When flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050 degrees, is there a risk of collision? And who has right of way?

Yes. The other aircraft does

33. When flying at night, you observe the green position light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 320 degrees at the same flight level and a constant relative bearing; what would your actions be?

Maintain heading and speed but be prepared to take action if the other aircraft fails to give way

34. While flying at night you see a red navigation light of another aircraft on a steady relative bearing of 30° at the same level/altitude as you. There is:

There is a risk of collision; you should alter your heading to the right

35. While flying at night, you notice a green navigation light from another aircraft at a relative bearing of 310°. This means that:

There is a risk of collision; you have right of way

36. While flying at night, you observe a red light and a white light to the right of it on another aircraft. The lights observed are in front of and to the right of you when seen in the windscreen and they are not moving. What is the situation?

There is a risk of collision, alter your heading to the right

37. Whilst on a cross country flight at night, another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degrees relative bearing. In that case you should see his:

green navigation light

38. You are flying at night and see a red light to the right and the green to the left growing bigger. The aircraft is...?

Moving directly toward you

↑ back to topics

Definitions Air Law

8 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. 'Flight' means the time period between the:

Moment the aircraft commences its take-off until the moment it completes its next landing

2. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:

The commander

3. The PIC of an aircraft is regarded as:

the pilot responsible for the flight, on board the aircraft

4. The pilot in command is the pilot:

who is responsible for the flight

5. “Flight time” means the total time occupied by a flight:

From the moment the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight

6. “Instrument flight time” as defined:

means the time period an aircraft is piloted solely with reference to instruments without external reference points whether under actual or simulated flight conditions

7. “Instrument ground time” as defined means:

means time during which a pilot is practicing on the ground simulated instrument flight in a FSTD approved by the Director

8. “Instrument time” means:

Instrument flight time or instrument ground time as defined

↑ back to topics

Equipment for Night Operations

19 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. Does an aircraft require serviceable navigation lights when being operated by night?

Yes

2. For VFR flights by night under Part 91, the following additional equipment is required: Navigation lights and:

an illuminated chart holder and two serviceable landing lights

3. In Accordance with CAR 91.04.4, the additional equipment to be carried onboard a VFR flight by night is:

a chart holder in an easily readable position which can be illuminated

4. No aircraft shall be operated at night without:

An anti-collision light system, navigation lights or position lights

5. No aircraft shall not be operated at night unless:

it is equipped with a serviceable rotating beacon

6. No owner or operator of an aircraft in which fuses are used, shall operate the aircraft unless there are spare fuses available for use in flight:

equal to at least ten per cent or three, whichever is the greater, of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete circuit protection

7. No owner or operator of an aircraft shall conduct single-pilot operations in any aircraft by night unless:

the single pilot flying is equipped with a headset with boom microphone or equivalent, and has a transmit button positioned in such a way that it may be operated without the pilot having to remove his or her hands from the control wheel, joy stick or cyclic stick

8. No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate such aircraft by night unless the aircraft is equipped with:

Two serviceable landing lights or one single serviceable landing light housing with two separately energized filaments

9. No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft at night in accordance with VFR, unless such aircraft is equipped with:

a magnetic compass, an accurate time-piece, a sensitive pressure altimeter, an airspeed indicator and a chart holder in an easily readable position which can be illuminated

10. Power supplied from the electrical system of the aircraft shall:

provide adequate illumination for all instruments and equipment, used by the flight crew and essential for the safe operation of the aircraft

11. Refer CAR 91.04.3. After you completed your pre-flight inspection, you realise that the instrument panel lights do not illuminate from power supplied by the electrical system. Your actions should be to:

not take-off as the electrical system is required to provide sufficient lighting to the instruments and equipment

12. Refer to Part 91.02.8. While flying at night the aircraft's landing lights become unserviceable, the PIC (pilot-in-command's) responsibility is to:

Record the technical defect in the flight folio

13. The PIC of an aircraft:

shall record any technical defect and the exceeding of any technical limitation which occurred while he or she was responsible for the flight, in the flight folio

14. What additional equipment needs to be carried onboard a VFR flight by night?

A chart holder in an easily readable position which can be illuminated

15. What equipment do you need for night flying?

Serviceable electric torch for each flight crew member

16. What is the minimum equipment required for night flying:

Navigation lights, landing light, strobe lights and an electric torch for each crew member

17. When is it compulsory to carry a torch for night flying?

Always

18. When operating an aircraft at night, the equipment required is:

A serviceable electrical torch for each required crew member

19. Which of the following is part of the operating lights required for an aeroplane to be operated at night?

An electric torch for each crew member

↑ back to topics

Factors That Affect Visual Acuity

21 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. Among the factors which affect acuity are:

Hypoxia, age and angular distance from the fovea

2. Among the factors which affect night vision are:

Age, cabin altitudes above 8000 ft, smoking and alcohol

3. Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?

Night vision

4. At which altitude (within the “indifferent zone”) may a degradation of night vision occur?

From approximately 1600m

5. During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by:

breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask

6. From which altitude does hypoxia start to affect night vision?

4000 feet

7. How can a poor diet influence vision?

Vitamin A is an essential element in the build-up of rhodopsin (visual purple); without this, night vision is degraded

8. Hypoxia can affect night vision

at approximately 5000 ft

9. Hypoxia will affect night vision:

at 5000 ft

10. Night vision may be affected by hypoxia from as low as:

4 000 ft

11. Positive acceleration can have considerable effects on the body:

with regards to the eyes, where reduced vision may occur owing to a reduction in blood pressure

12. Smoking and alcohol consumption will likely:

Degrade night vision

13. To optimise one’s night-vision performance, it is necessary:

1, 3, 4

14. Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by:

1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

15. Visual disturbances can be caused by:

1, 2 and 4 are correct

16. What factors can lead to a deterioration in night vision?

1, 2, 3 and 4

17. What human function is most sensitive to lack of oxygen?

Night vision

18. What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?

Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness

19. When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the:

vision

20. When you smoke in the cockpit, what do you expect to happen other than the likelihood of hypoxia?

Decrease in night vision

21. Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness?

Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple

↑ back to topics

Flight Hazards

37 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A small super cooled cloud droplet that collides with an aerofoil will most likely

freeze immediately and create rime ice

2. A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

ahead of a cold front

3. Accretion of rain ice is associated with and can occur when flying:

Above the freezing level in the cold air before reaching a warm front

4. Airframe icing:

Can occur outside cloud or precipitation

5. As altitude increases:

The pressure of oxygen decreases

6. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:

rapidly and do not spread out

7. For a VFR flight severe airframe icing may occur when flying

into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation

8. Frontal thunderstorms are mainly associated with:

cold fronts

9. In general as altitude increases:

temperature, pressure and density decrease

10. In what cloud is icing and turbulence most severe?

CB

11. In what temperature range in a nimbostratus cloud can heavy icing be expected?

0°C to -10°C

12. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

CS

13. In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft’s surface?

0°C to -10°C

14. In which type of cloud would an aircraft experience the least amount of icing:

Cs

15. One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is:

Visible moisture

16. Polar maritime air is characterised by:

exceptionally unstable air which produces clouds of great vertical extent

17. Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:

small super cooled water drops

18. Rime ice is caused by:

small supercooled water droplets

19. The frontal system that is most likely to produce thunderstorm activity:

A cold front

20. The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in:

super cooled precipitation

21. The situation where rain ice is likely to occur must be avoided. This would be when flying:

Ahead of a warm front with the OAT gauge reading -5°C

22. The term "CAVOK" used in a TAF or METAR:

visibility 10km or more and no cloud below 5000ft

23. The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are:

9999, NSC, NSW

24. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?

Between -2°C and -15°C

25. Unstable air is characterised by:

Cumulus cloud with showers and generally good visibility

26. What are the characteristics of rime ice?

Milky, granular appearance, accumulating forward into the airstream

27. What causes rime ice?

Small supercooled water droplets freezing almost instantaneously

28. Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?

High clouds

29. Which of the following combinations is most characteristic of unstable air behind a cold front?

Good visibility between showers, showery precipitation, cumuliform clouds

30. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft?

Cloud temperature and droplet size

31. Which of the following is typical for the passage of an active cold front in the summer?

Mainly towering clouds

32. Which of the following statements is correct?

Airframe icing can occur in clear air

33. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing?

It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud

34. Which of the following temperature conditions is worst for icing?

-2°C to -15°C

35. Which of the following thunderstorms produce the most severe conditions?

Squall line thunderstorms

36. While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powder like contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is called:

Rime ice

37. You will get the least amount of icing in which cloud?

CS

↑ back to topics

Flying with Instruments

32 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A pilot is lining up on the runway for a flight at night. How is the climb out maintained after rotation?

With initial reference to the horizon and then instruments

2. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:

200°

3. An aircraft flying heading 355° (M) with relative bearing 120°. What is the magnetic bearing to the station (QDM)?

115°

4. An aircraft is flying on radial 060 and wishes to intercept the 090 radial from the station at an intercept angle of 30°. What heading should the aircraft turn onto?

120°

5. An aircraft is on the 075º radial from an NDB with a heading of 295ºM.The relative bearing on the ADF is:

320º

6. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications, the deviation indicator should be set to:

064° with the TO flag showing

7. An aircraft is taxiing to the runway. During a left turn, the magnetic compass heading will:

decrease

8. An aircraft is taxiing to the runway. During a right turn, the magnetic compass heading will:

increase

9. An RMI shows the bearing of an NDB as 020°. The heading of the aeroplane is 020° M. In order to intercept an outbound course of 330° (from the NDB) at an angle of 40°, the aeroplanes heading should be altered to:

010

10. Calculate the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is for an aircraft on a QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°.

320

11. Choose the correct answer. With regards to rotation and climb out at night:

The pilot will rotate with reference to the horizon and climb out with reference to instruments whilst maintaining a good lookout

12. During the taxi and in a left turn, the (DI) Direction Indicator will indicate a heading which is:

Decreasing

13. During the taxi and in a right turn, the (DI) Direction Indicator will indicate a heading which is:

Increasing

14. If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be:

135°

15. On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates:

needle to the left, ball to the right

16. On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates:

needle to the right, ball to left

17. On the ground, in a left turn, the AH will indicate:

remain steady

18. On the ground, in a right turn, the AH will indicate:

remain steady

19. Routing to a VOR on radial 060 with 060 set on top of the OBS. If the CDI drifts to the left, it means the aircraft is drifting:

Left

20. The definition of 'QDM':

Magnetic bearing to the station

21. The definition of 'QDR':

Magnetic track from the station

22. The definition of 'QTE':

True bearing from the station

23. The definition of 'QUJ':

True track to the station

24. The pressure instruments are:

Altimeter, ASI and VSI

25. What heading change must you make to intercept radial 190 outbound by 35° if you are currently on radial 100 with no wind?

225°

26. When turning from 280° through to 020° with only the magnetic compass as a reference, what heading should you roll out on if the turn is made in the Southern Hemisphere?

040°

27. You are currently flying on a radial of 150. What heading must you turn on to intercept a QDR of 175 at an intercept of 35°?

210°

28. You are currently on a QDR of 185° from the station. To intercept the 110° QDR by 30°, you need to turn onto a heading of:

80°

29. You are flying on radial 210, you plan to intercept radial 260 inbound by 45°. What heading should you turn on to?

035°M

30. You are flying towards a VOR on radial 220 with 220 set at the top of the aircraft instrument. If the CDI needle swings to the left, you need to alter your heading to the:

Right

31. You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is:

020°

32. You are piloting an aircraft flying a heading of 160° (M) on a relative bearing 120°. What is the QDM?

280°

↑ back to topics

General Laws and Rules of the Air

38 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A load sheet shall be completed for flights made by South African aircraft which are classified and operated under the public transport category and have a maximum certified mass greater than:

1600KG

2. A pilot is flying over terrain with an altitude of 2500 feet at night, what is the minimum altitude the pilot may fly?

3500 feet

3. A pilot is flying over terrain with an altitude of 6000 feet at night, what is the minimum altitude the pilot may fly?

8000 feet

4. A pilot may fly through a declared restricted area provided that:

permission from the appropriate authority is obtained

5. A private pilot may:

Fly as a safety pilot at night provided that she is the holder of a night rating

6. A safety pilot is required to hold at least a:

PPL

7. A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:

occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out

8. A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:

occupy a seat with access to the controls and be able to keep a good look out

9. Aircraft “A” and “B” are approaching the same runway. Aircraft A has filed a flight plan, but aircraft B has not:

Aircraft “A” may have priority over “B”

10. All aircraft must carry an emergency oxygen supply if they operate at:

An altitude above 12 000 ft

11. As stated in part 91 CAR's, the PIC of the aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen is available if flights in a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated:

Above 10,000 feet

12. As stated under Part 91 CAR's, no person shall consume alcohol less than:

8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty

13. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located on the flight deck for use by flight deck crew. This must be of the following type :

Halon 1211

14. At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the height of the highest obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:

1 000 ft

15. At night when flying in accordance with VFR with the exception of taking off or landing at aerodrome, the minimum height above the height of the highest terrain or obstacle below 5 000 feet and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:

1 000 ft

16. Except in an emergency, the minimum requirements for an aerodrome to be used for take-off and landing by night are:

the standard night flying facilities

17. Final reserve fuel for a private flight in an aircraft with a reciprocating engine is:

45 minutes

18. If aircraft ‘A’ has filed a flight plan and aircraft ‘B’ has not:

aircraft ‘A’ may be given priority

19. In accordance with CARS Part 91: No member of the flight crew shall consume any alcohol:

less than 8 hours prior to a flight

20. In the case of a radio failure, a flight for which a flight plan was filed and activated may continue in controlled airspace provided that:

the communication failure procedure are complied with

21. In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot?

never

22. No flight crew member shall donate blood:

less than 72 hours prior to a flight

23. No flight crew member shall undergo Scuba Diving:

less than 24 hours prior to a flight

24. No person shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off in an aircraft, except:

All of the above

25. No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off, except:

in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft

26. The minimum en route safe altitude when flying in accordance with VFR at night:

1000 feet if the obstacle is 5000 feet and below and 2000 feet if the obstacle exceeds 5000 feet

27. The minimum height above the highest terrain or obstacle located within five nautical miles of the aircraft in flight where the height of such terrain or obstacle exceeds 5 000 feet above sea level:

2000 ft

28. The pilot in command of an aircraft on a domestic VFR cross country flight shall not commence take-off unless:

a favorable meteorological forecast for the route to be flown has been obtained

29. The pre-flight inspection of an aircraft regarding its serviceability and its equipment is the responsibility of the:

pilot-in-command (PIC)

30. The safety of an aircraft and of all persons or property carried therein is the responsibility of the:

Pilot in command

31. The semi-circular rule refers to:

Magnetic track

32. What are the requirements of an airfield to carry out night flying if not an emergency?

The aerodrome has night flying facilities

33. When can an overtaking aircraft alter its heading to the left ?

When a right hand circuit pattern is in force

34. When conducting a VFR flight at night with an obstacle en-route that doesn’t exceed 5000ft, the minimum height above the height of the highest obstacle or terrain is:

1000 ft

35. When does a pilot not have to comply with the semi-circular rule ?

When flown below 1500 feet AGL VFR

36. When is the PIC (pilot in command) not required to sign the load and trim sheet?

When it is sent as an electronic copy

37. When on a private flight from a controlled airfield to another controlled airfield, a flight plan:

Must be filed

38. Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet of the aircraft ?

The pilot in command

↑ back to topics

Humidity, Condensation and Precipitation

36 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to the presence of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:

< = 5,000m

2. Dew point is defined as:

the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure

3. Fog (FG) is defined as being:

visibility of < 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere

4. Frontal fog is a common feature that occurs:

Ahead of a warm front or an occluded front

5. Frontal fog is most likely to occur:

in advance of a warm front

6. Hail can be expected to fall from:

large, cumulonimbus cloud

7. Hail is most likely to be produced by this type of cloud:

CB

8. Large hail stones:

are typically associated with severe thunderstorms

9. Mist (BR) is defined as being:

reduced visibility > = 1,000m but not more than 5,000m due to the presence of water droplets in the atmosphere

10. Mist forms when:

The temperature is at or below the dew point

11. Moist, stable air that is forced up a gradual upslope will most likely produce:

Low stratus type cloud

12. Precipitation in the form of rain can be expected from:

altocumulus

13. Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from:

convective clouds

14. Precipitation produced by stratus cloud is normally:

Drizzle

15. Select the following list that describes cloud types in the ascending order of Low, Medium and High:

Nimbostratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus

16. The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if

air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another

17. The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if (1 mark)

air temperature and dew point are close to one another

18. The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively

frontal fog and advection fog

19. The type of fog that may be expected to form ahead of a warm front is known as:

frontal fog

20. What cloud type can produce freezing rain?

Nimbostratus

21. What does dew point mean?

The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation

22. What is condensation?

The change of state from water vapour to water

23. What is the difference between mist and fog?

with mist the visibility is greater than 1000 m and with fog it is less than 1000 m

24. What is the temperature called where condensation starts to take place?

Dew point

25. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

CB

26. What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?

Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus

27. What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?

Showers associated with thunderstorms

28. What’s the difference between mist and fog?

Visibility in mist is 1000m or more while visibility in fog is less than 1000m

29. When moist stable air is forced upwards on a gradual slope, it will most likely result in:

Fog or low stratus type cloud or both

30. When the visibility is below 1000m due to water droplets, it is known as:

Fog

31. Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as MIFG?

A layer of fog 5 feet deep

32. Which of the following statements about dew point temperature is most correct?

The dew point temperature can be equal to or lower than the temperature of the air mass

33. Which of the following statements is correct?

FG is reported only when visibility is reduced by water droplets or ice crystals to less than 1000m

34. Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?

It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass

35. Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?

Fog

36. With what type of cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated?

CB

↑ back to topics

Hypoxia

62 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A pilot should not fly immediately after donating blood because:

you have an increased susceptibility to fainting

2. A pilot’s resistance to hypoxia can be increased by:

being in good physical condition and 25 years of age and over

3. Above 10000ft, the first symptoms of hypoxia start occurring and are usually associated with:

Mental functions

4. An early symptom of hypoxia is:

a feeling of euphoria

5. Below 8000 feet, which of the following is more likely?

Hyperventilation

6. Blood donation before flying is permitted:

at least 72 hours prior to the next flight

7. Daltons law explains the occurrence of:

altitude hypoxia

8. Define Hypoxia and explain why living tissues require oxygen.

Hypoxia is the lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues which require oxygen for oxidation of carbohydrates from food to produce energy.

9. During flight all crew members have one or more of the following symptoms:

Hypoxia

10. Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:

1, 3 and 4 are correct

11. How can a pilot achieve better resistance to the effects of hypoxia?

Being in good physical health

12. How can hyperventilation be overcome?

Breathing slower

13. Hypoxia affects visual performance. A pilot may:

get blurred and/or tunnel vision

14. Hypoxia can also be caused by:

a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the haemoglobin to transport oxygen

15. Hypoxia can be caused by:

1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

16. Hypoxia can be defined as:

a deficiency of oxygen in the blood

17. Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot

is using additional oxygen when flying above 10,000 feet

18. Hypoxia can occur because:

you are hyperventilating

19. Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells:

have a shortage of oxygen

20. Hypoxia is the result of:

Decreasing amount of oxygen as your altitude increases

21. Hypoxia is:

a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions

22. Hypoxia occurs when:

The oxygen saturation of the blood falls below a certain level

23. Hypoxic hypoxia is defined as

A condition where there is insufficient oxygenation of the blood in the lungs owing to decreased partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli

24. Hypoxic hypoxia may be caused by:

1, 2 and 3

25. In aviation, the condition known as “cyanosis” is associated with:

hypoxia

26. In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?

This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions

27. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:

Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria

28. One of the early symptoms of hypoxia?

an increased sense of well-being

29. One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:

impaired judgement

30. One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:

impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognise the symptoms

31. Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by:

decreased atmospheric pressure

32. Select the true statement concerning hypoxia:

Often a major early symptom of hypoxia is an increased sense of well-being

33. Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as:

8000 ft

34. The best way for a pilot to control hypoxia is by:

maintaining an adequate oxygen pressure gradient

35. The effect of hypoxia with regards to vision:

is stronger with the rods

36. The effects of Hypoxia can be alleviated by:

Descending below 12 000 ft or using supplementary oxygen

37. The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are:

euphoria and impairment of judgement

38. The most dangerous type of incapacitation in flight is one that:

develops slowly and gradually (insidious)

39. The occurrence of unusual or abnormal mental or physical behaviour in pilots could be:

hypoxia

40. The type of hypoxia which occurs at altitude is explained by:

Daltons law

41. What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

Personality changes, decreased mental functions, loss of muscular control

42. What condition is associated with blue tipped fingers and lips?

Cyanosis

43. What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12000 ft?

Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination

44. What is hypoxia

Reduction in the concentration of oxygen in the blood

45. What is hypoxia ?

Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below the limits to meet the needs of the body tissues

46. What is hypoxia?

Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition

47. What is hypoxic hypoxia?

Lowered blood oxygen level due to a lowered partial pressure in the lungs

48. What is the most correct regarding hypoxia?

It is the result of insufficient oxygen in the blood stream

49. What risk does a pilot face if he donates blood?

Hypoxia

50. Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?

1, 2 and 4 are correct

51. Which of the following is/are symptom(s) of hypoxia?

Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria

52. Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct:

It Is a potential threat to safety

53. Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?

1, 2 and 4 are correct

54. Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to hypoxia?

1, 2 and 3 are correct

55. Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?

Tingling sensations in arms or legs

56. Which statement applies to hypoxia?

sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person

57. Which statement best defines hypoxia?

A state of oxygen deficiency in the body

58. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?

The degradation of reasoning and perceptive functions

59. Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo:

Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react in time (i.e.. Activate his emergency oxygen system)

60. Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?

Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect

61. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognise before the pilot’s reactions are affected

62. You notice that one of your passengers has blue finger tips and lips (cyanosis). What would a likely cause of cyanosis be?

Hypoxia

↑ back to topics

Icing

25 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing will you encounter?

Hoar frost

2. An aircraft flies into supercooled rain in an area with a temperature below 0°C. The type of icing it will most likely encounter is:

Clear ice

3. Carburettor icing may be expected to occur in clear air when the relative humidity is … the temperature is … and with …. Power set.

30%, +30°C, descent

4. Carburettor icing:

is indicated by a rough running engine and a gradual decrease in RPM

5. Clear ice forms as a result of:

large supercooled water droplets freezing as they spread

6. Clear ice forms as a result of:

super cooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process

7. Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:

large super cooled water drops

8. Clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are

large and at a temperature just below freezing

9. Clear or glazed ice is caused by:

large super-cooled water droplets at temperatures between 0°C and -20°C, which are found in cumulonimbus and nimbostratus type clouds

10. During flight, carburettor icing is least likely to happen:

with a relative humidity of 40%

11. Glaze or clear ice is formed when super cooled droplets are:

large and at a temperature just below freezing

12. Hoar frost can form when:

An aircraft has been parked outside overnight on a winter night with clear skies

13. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:

water vapor turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface

14. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft when:

an aircraft flies from sub-zero temperature air into warm moist air

15. Hoar frost is most likely to form when:

taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion (sky clear)

16. In order for carburettor icing to form, the outside air needs to be:

Moist

17. In winter, an aeroplane which has been parked outside during a clear skied night can be expected to be covered with:

hoar frost

18. Large super cooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane form:

clear ice

19. On a cold winter day what kind of icing would you find on the windscreen of your plane?

Hoar frost

20. The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be caused by the:

relatively slow freezing of large super cooled water droplets

21. The most dangerous form of airframe icing is:

clear ice

22. When is clear ice or glaze formed?

When supercooled droplets are large and at a temperature just below freezing

23. When would you encounter hoar frost?

Climbing through an inversion

24. While forming clear ice in flight, water droplets freeze…

and spread out extensively

25. Why is clear ice significant?

It can substantially increase the weight on the aircraft and change the shape of aerofoils

↑ back to topics

Land and Sea Breeze

12 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A land breeze blows:

From the land by night

2. A sea breeze will be found at coastal areas:

during the day

3. Due to the diurnal variations of temperature the following types of wind arise:

Sea and land breeze

4. In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows:

during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze

5. Sea breezes are most likely to occur when a (1 mark):

slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperatures

6. Select the statement that is most representative of land and sea breezes

The surface wind is likely to be an onshore/sea breeze during the day

7. Select the statement that is most representative of land and sea breezes.

The surface wind is likely to be from sea to land during the day

8. The sea breeze is a wind from the sea:

occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime

9. What is a land breeze?

Air moving from land over water at night

10. When flying along a coastline at night, what type of wind can you expect:

Land breeze

11. When flying at night along a coastline, what type of wind can you expect?

land breeze

12. Which of the following is true of a land breeze?

It blows from land to water

↑ back to topics

Night Rating Recency

9 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless he/she has, in the preceding:

90 days carried out a minimum of three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same class and category or an approved simulator

2. A pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, carrying a passenger by night, unless such pilot has carried out at least:

3 take-offs and landings by night within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight

3. A pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft, or SIC of an aircraft required to be crewed by more than one pilot, carrying passengers by night, unless the pilot has personally, within the.........immediately preceding the flight, carried out at least three take-offs and three landings by night in the same class or. if a type-rating is required, type or variant of aeroplane, and in the case of a helicopter three circuits including three take-offs and three landings in the same type of helicopter as that in which such flight is to be undertaken. The landings required by this sub-regulation may be completed in a FSTD approved for the purpose. In the case of a tail-wheel aeroplane, each landing shall be to a full stop.

90 days

4. A pilot shall not act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers by night unless:

He has within the 90 days preceding the flight, carried out at least three take-offs and three landings by night

5. A pilot who wishes to carry passengers on a flight by night must have completed at least 3 takeoffs and landings in the preceding 90 days in:

the same class of aeroplane by night

6. Before carrying passengers in an aeroplane by night, the pilot in command must have completed:

3 take offs and 3 landings at night in the same class, category and/or type within the preceding ninety days

7. Certain night flying recency requirements must be met before a night landing or night take-off can be made in respect of:

Flights on which passengers are carried

8. Choose the correct statement:

A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of any aircraft carrying passengers by night, unless such pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight, carried out by night at least three take-offs and three landings in the same class or similar type and category of aeroplane

9. No person shall act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a passenger by night unless he/she has:

Within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight, carried out not less than three take-offs by night and three landings by night in an aircraft of the same class or similar type and category of aeroplane as that in which such passenger-carrying flight is to be undertaken

↑ back to topics

Night Rating Requirements and Definitions

25 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A 'Night Rating' is a:

Rating for special purposes

2. A holder of a Private Pilot Licence with a Night Rating may:

act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft by night of which he or she holds the appropriate category and class rating

3. A Night Rating is valid for:

As long as the pilot licence is valid

4. A pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft, or SIC of an aircraft required to be crewed by more than one pilot, carrying passengers by night, unless the pilot has personally, within the i.) ........immediately preceding the flight, carried out at least ii.) ........... in the same class or, if an type rating is required, type or variant of aeroplane.

i.) 90 days; ii.) three take-offs and three landings by night

5. An applicant for a night rating (aeroplane) shall have completed not less than:

10 hours of instrument flight time, at least 5 take-offs and 5 landings by night and a dual night cross country of not less than 150nm

6. An applicant for a night rating must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 ATO not less than 10 hours of instrument instruction of which:

Not more than 5 hours may be accumulated in an approved FSTD

7. An applicant for a night rating must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 ATO:

Not less than 10 hours of instrument instruction

8. An applicant for a night rating must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 ATO:

Not less than 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction

9. An applicant for a night rating on aeroplanes must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 ATO a dual cross country where:

Full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made

10. An applicant for a night rating on aeroplanes must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 ATO:

A dual cross-country flight by night consisting of at least 150 NM

11. An applicant for a night rating on aeroplanes must have completed under the auspices of an approved Part 141 ATO:

Not less than 5 take-offs and 5 landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction

12. How long after the skills test has been completed may you apply for the night rating?

30 days

13. How long is a night rating valid for?

As long the pilot licence is valid

14. How many hours of theoretical knowledge instruction must be completed to apply for a night rating?

5 hours

15. How many take-offs and landings must be completed to apply for a night rating under dual instruction?

5

16. Of the instrument instruction hours that must be completed to apply for a night rating, how many hours may be accumulated in an approved FSTD?

5 hours

17. Requirements for a night rating include:

5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction

18. Requirements for a night rating include:

Not less than 10 hours of instrument instruction, of which not more than 5 hours may be accumulated in an approved flight simulation training device (FSTD)

19. Requirements for a night rating on aeroplanes include:

In the case of a night rating for aeroplanes, a total distance of not less than 150 NM in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes away from base are made

20. Requirements for the issue of a night rating include:

In the case of a night rating on aeroplanes, not less than 5 take-offs and 5 landings by night as pilot manipulating the controls of the aircraft whilst under dual instruction

21. The applicant for a Night Rating must undergo the skill test within:

30 days of the date of application

22. The skill test for a Night Rating must be conducted in an aircraft of the same category, and shall include a minimum of:

3 take-offs, 3 circuits and 3 landings by night

23. What should the distance of the dual cross country flight be in order to apply for a night rating?

150 NM

24. When operating under IFR, the flight crew must consist of at least:

two pilots, or one pilot and an autopilot which has heading & altitude hold capability

25. Which of the following is a rating for special purposes?

Night Rating

↑ back to topics

Night Vision

15 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A pilot is performing a cross country flight at night. The best visual cues for her to pay attention to while approaching to land are:

The ground texture and the size of familiar objects on the ground

2. How should a pilot look at an object to achieve the best night vision?

The pilot should look slightly to the side of an object as the rods will have greater exposure because they are more concentrated away from the centre of the retina

3. How will the best night vision be achieved?

Looking slightly away from or to the side of an object

4. If warned of an imminent thunderstorm:

cockpit lights should be turned up

5. Regarding scanning at night, the best practice would be to:

Look to the side of the object

6. Scanning at night should be performed by:

slight eye movements to the side of the object

7. The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

look to the side of the object and scan slowly

8. The best night vision can be achieved by:

Looking slightly off centre or to the side of an object, giving the rods greater exposure as they are more concentrated away from the centre of the retina (in the periphery).

9. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during night-time hours is to use

peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-centre viewing

10. Use of red light in the cockpit mainly affects?

Red lines on charts and maps become difficult to view and identify

11. Visual traffic is best identified at night by using:

The rods

12. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

Scan slowly to permit off-centre viewing

13. When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from flash blindness by:

(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct

14. When scanning outside the cockpit at night, you should look:

Off-centre or to the side of where you want to scan

15. Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night?

Look to the side (10 – 15 deg) of the object

↑ back to topics

Physiology of the Eye

22 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. Choose the correct answer. What is a danger caused by empty-field myopia?

Failure to recognise oncoming traffic

2. Empty field myopia is caused by:

a lack of distant focal points

3. Good night vision is dependent upon:

Rods, which function in dim/poor light conditions

4. If a pilot looks directly at an object at night, he will see the object:

Less clearly because the fovea is a blind spot

5. In an empty sky, the eye focuses naturally on objects located at a distance of:

1-2 m

6. In order to allow for more light to enter the eye:

The iris will contract which will in turn increase the size of the pupil

7. Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for:

good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)

8. The fovea is

the area of best day vision and no night vision at all

9. The fovea is:

the area of best day vision and of reduced value at night

10. The main component(s) of the eye that is/are used to see at night are:

The rods

11. The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision:

are the rods

12. The phenomena called empty-field myopia is a problem for pilots when:

Attempting to scan for traffic in a featureless sky

13. The photosensitive cells being responsible for night vision are called:

the rods

14. The photosensitive cells that are responsible for night vision are called:

Rods

15. The rods in the eyes are instrumental for:

Peripheral vision

16. There is a lack of distant focal points and as a result, your eyes tend to focus 1 - 2m just ahead of you, this is known as:

Empty-field myopia

17. What is 'empty field myopia'?

The natural tendency of the eye to adopt a resting focus at a point just slightly ahead of the airplane at approximately 2 metres when there is a lack of distant focal points

18. What is 'empty-field myopia'?

Short sightedness caused when there is nothing to focus on i.e. lack of distant focal points

19. What is rhodopsin?

A chemical called visual purple which sometimes is present in rod cells

20. Which of the following statements is correct?

Scotopic Vision is vision through the operation of the Rods

21. Which photosensitive cell is responsible for night flying?

The rods

22. Why are the eyes more sensitive (better night vision), after 30 – 45 minutes in a dark environment?

"Light bleaches out visual purple (rhodopsin)" and "For night vision to take place, visual purple must build up in the rods" are correct

↑ back to topics

Pilot Health and Hygiene

27 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A person’s susceptibility to hypoxia can be increased by:

Alcohol, tobacco and drugs

2. A pilot's susceptibility to hypoxia:

will increase with the consumption of alcohol, drugs and tobacco

3. Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning in flight:

presents an extremely dangerous situation as the blood may not be able carry sufficient amounts of oxygen to vital cells and tissues of the body.

4. Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning leads to hypoxia because:

CO in blood displaces oxygen from the blood corpuscles impairing oxygen transport

5. Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?

A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can seriously affect a pilot’s ability to operate an aircraft

6. Carbon Monoxide is particularly dangerous because:

all of the above

7. Carbon monoxide poisoning:

is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heating is supplied by passing cabin air over the exhaust manifold(s)

8. Carbon monoxide:

All of the answers are correct

9. Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:

a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot’s tolerance to hypoxia

10. Cigarette smoking is of particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:

a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia

11. CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to:

1 and 2 are both correct

12. Flying at pressure altitude of 10000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude:

above 10000 ft

13. How can alcohol create hypoxia?

Alcohol can create histotoxic hypoxia, since it increases the physiological altitude. Individuals who have consumed 1 ounce of alcohol can have a physiological altitude of 2000 feet

14. In order to maintain situational awareness:

a pilot should gather and consider all possible data whilst updating the situation and planning ahead

15. In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning:

Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness

16. Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the following statements is correct?

Carbon monoxide is odourless and colourless

17. One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to:

Carbon monoxide

18. Pilots who smoke are more likely to be affected by hypoxia at:

lower cabin altitudes than non-smokers

19. Smokers are more susceptible to hypoxia because:

Tar damages the lungs and reduces the capacity of the lungs to absorb oxygen

20. Smoking 3 cigarettes in 1 hour at sea level will:

cause a lower degree of hypoxic tolerance

21. Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen because:

haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen

22. Smoking:

Increases a person's susceptibility to hypoxia

23. The chances of hypoxia affecting a crew member are increased if that crew member:

Smokes, consumes alcohol or takes drugs

24. The effects caused by alcohol consumption will...... with an increase in cabin altitude:

increase

25. Which gas most readily combines with haemoglobin?

carbon monoxide

26. Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?

It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes increasing a smoker’s “physiological altitude”

27. Which statement is correct?

1, 2 and 3 are correct

↑ back to topics

Radiation Fog

37 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A cloudless night, moist air and light winds are ideal conditions for the formation of:

Radiation Fog

2. A warm moist air mass from the sea, moving over a cold land mass, can lead to:

Advection fog

3. As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is formed. Which statement is true?

Low stratus will develop caused by increasing wind speed

4. At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?

Shortly after sunrise

5. Conditions favourable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are:

high relative humidity, little or no cloud, little wind (2-8kts or calm)

6. For the formation of radiation fog to occur, which of the following are required:

moist air

7. If radiation fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind speed from 5kts to 13kts will most likely:

cause the fog to lift and become low stratus

8. In what conditions does radiation fog form:

2-8kts

9. Name the difference between radiation and advection fog:

Vertical movement (radiation fog) versus horizontal movement (advection fog)

10. On a clear, cloudless night, light winds and moist air blowing over land will most likely create:

radiation fog

11. On a cloudless night after a hot day with a wind blowing at 5 to 7 knots, you can expect:

Radiation fog

12. On a cloudless night after a hot day with wind blowing at 15 to 20 knots, you can expect the formation of:

Stratus type cloud

13. One of the main reasons for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:

surface heating

14. Radiation fog can be dispersed by:

all of the above

15. Radiation fog is reported in the morning, over an airfield located inland, in calm conditions. An increase in windspeed to 10 knots will cause:

The fog to lift and form low stratus

16. Radiation fog most frequently occurs in:

high pressure systems over land

17. Radiation fog occurs when there is:

Ground cooling due to radiation

18. Radiation fog relies on the principles surrounding the:

Vertical transfer of heat

19. Radiation involves the:

Vertical transfer of heat

20. The following meteorological conditions most favour the formation of radiation fog:

High relative humidity, light winds and clear skies

21. The ideal conditions for the formation of radiation fog are:

Clear skies, high relative humidity and light winds

22. The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dew point, is likely to produce:

radiation fog

23. The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:

increasing surface wind speed

24. The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:

below 5kts

25. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?

Little or no cloud

26. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

500 FT

27. What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog?

Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface

28. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions?

Radiation fog

29. Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?

Moist air over land during clear night with little wind

30. Which of the following conditions are favourable for the formation of radiation fog?

Clear skies at night, moist air, light winds

31. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?

A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground

32. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?

A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground

33. Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?

Heat loss from the ground on clear nights

34. Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?

Ground radiation

35. Which of the following statements is true?

Radiation fog cannot form over the sea

36. Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?

Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air

37. Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water?

Radiation fog

↑ back to topics

Runway and Aerodrome Lighting

57 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. Aerodrome lights may be turned off provided they can be brought into operation within ___ of the expected arrival of an aeroplane. Which answer correctly fills in the blank space?

1 hour

2. Airfield beacons (aeronautical beacons) usually show:

white flashing strobe light

3. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

blue omnidirectional lights.

4. Alternate yellow and green centre line lights of a taxiway indicate:

An ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area

5. How far down first part of the runway do runway touchdown lights extend?

900 m

6. If a runway has a published instrument approach procedure, what colour are the runway edge lights in the caution range?

Yellow

7. If runway centre line lights are installed on a runway with a length of 1800m or more, they shall have the following colours on the last 900m:

Alternate red and white from 900m to 300m and red from 300m to the runway end

8. Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation:

At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft

9. Refer to the figure above

The threshold light installation

10. Refer to the image above.

the edge lights at the remote end of the RWY show yellow as a warning to pilots

11. Refer to the photograph of the runway above

The runway has a displaced threshold

12. Refer to the photograph of the runway above: The lights circled in red are:

Wing bar lights

13. Refer to the photograph of the runway below: What is the reason for the runway lighting installation which has been circled in red?

a displaced threshold

14. Refer to the taxiway diagram above

Stop bar lights

15. Runway approach lighting:

does not mark the boundary of a suitable landing area and simply acts as a lead-in to a runway

16. Runway centre line lights shall be fixed lights showing variable ___ from the threshold to the point 900m from the runway end, alternate ___ and variable ___ from 900m to 300m from runway end, and ___ from 300m to the runway end

white, red and white, red

17. Runway edge lights are coloured:

White

18. Runway edge lights are fixed lights showing:

White, becoming yellow for the final third of the take-off runway length

19. Runway edge lights are used to outline the edge of a runway during periods of darkness or during conditions of restricted visibility. The colour of runway edge lights are:

White

20. Runway edge lights are:

Fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing white or yellow

21. Runway edge lights except in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:

Fixed lights showing variable white

22. Runway edge lights must be provided for a runway to be used for night flying. The runway edge lights:

Must be accompanied by runway end lights

23. Runway end lights shall be:

Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway

24. Runway end lights show:

red in the direction of approach to the runway

25. Runway lighting: The amber lights on the last 600 m of the runway edge lights are called:

Caution zone

26. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

Flashing white

27. Runway threshold lights shall be:

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway

28. Runway threshold lights show:

green in the direction of approach to the runway

29. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:

of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway;

30. Taxi lights: what colour are the centre lights of the taxiway

Green

31. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

Fixed lights showing green

32. Taxiway centreline lights are fixed lights which are:

green

33. Taxiway centreline lights are located along the taxiway centreline to facilitate ground traffic under low visibility conditions and night operations. These are:

steady burning and emit green light

34. Taxiway edge lights are used to outline the edges of taxiways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility. These fixtures emit:

Blue light

35. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be:

red

36. The colour of the fixed, unidirectional runway threshold and wing bar lights shall be:

green

37. The end of the usable runway is 3000 feet away. The runway centreline lights:

alternate between white and red

38. The runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways ........ replaces the white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings. The colour of these lights are:

Yellow

39. The runway edge lights shall be:

white

40. The runway threshold lights as seen by the pilot on an approach are normally:

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green

41. To cross lighted stop bars on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, the following applies:

An aircraft may only proceed further if the lights are switched off

42. VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

the same as during daytime

43. What are the minimum lights required at an aerodrome in order for night departures and arrivals to take place?

Runway end lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights

44. What colour are runway touch down lights?

White

45. What colour are the approach threshold lights?

Green

46. What colour are the runway edge lights from the beginning to the end?

White changing to yellow towards the end

47. What colour do runway centreline lights change to near the end of runways with published instrument approach procedures?

Red

48. What colour is an aerodrome beacon at a land aerodrome?

White or white/green

49. What do the letters “CZ” mean when found in the AIP under aerodrome lighting?

Caution Zone

50. What does a row of green lights running across the runway indicate?

the threshold

51. What is a 'barrette'?

a set of three lights which from a distance look like a single bar

52. What is a barrette?

three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights

53. What runway lights do you expect at the threshold of the runway?

Green at the threshold of the landing runway

54. When a runway threshold is displaced, what colour shall the lights have in approach direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold?

Red

55. When reaching the end of the runway, the centreline lights:

are all red

56. Where are taxiway centre line lights showing alternatively green and yellow installed?

From the beginning of a taxiway near the runway centre line to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area

57. Yellow lights towards the end of the runway during landing. What do they mean?

Caution to pilot that he is nearing the end of the runway during landing

↑ back to topics

Signals and Symbols

30 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A flashing red light beamed from an aerodrome control tower to an aircraft on the ground means:

Taxi clear of the runway

2. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means

The airport is unsafe, do not land

3. A light signal that is shone from the ground to an aircraft in flight to instruct the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and continue circling:

A continuous red beam

4. A parachute flare showing a red light means:

Grave and imminent danger threatens

5. A pilot observes a green flashing light followed by a red pyrotechnical light. This means:

Do not land for the time being

6. A pilot that is intercepted by another aircraft should attempt to establish radio contact on:

121.5 MHz

7. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control tower to an aircraft in flight means:

return for landing

8. A series of green flashes of light from the tower to an aircraft taxiing means

Cleared to taxi

9. A steady green light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means:

cleared for take-off

10. A steady green light to an aircraft in the air means:

Cleared to land

11. A steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the Aerodrome Control tower means:

Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling

12. A steady red light shone from the aerodrome control tower to an aircraft taxiing means:

Stop

13. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft on the ground, a red flashing light means:

Move off the landing area or taxiway and watch out for aircraft

14. An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:

not land because the airport is not available for landing

15. By day or night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate to an aircraft :

It is about to enter, a restricted, prohibited or danger area

16. In an emergency situation, how can an a/c communicate to the tower that it has understood the instruction?

Switching the landing lights on and off

17. In flight the pilot of an aircraft observes a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars. The meaning of this signal is:

The unauthorised aircraft is flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area and the aircraft is to take such remedial action as may be necessary

18. In the event that paraffin flares are the only lighting available at an airfield, what term will be used to indicate the availability of paraffin flares in the AIP?

Goosenecks

19. The colour(s) of an Aerodrome Identification Beacon (AIB) for a civilian land aerodrome:

Green / alternating green and white

20. The light shown by an Aerodrome Identification Beacon of a land aerodrome shall be flashing, giving the aerodrome identification by Morse Code. The colour of this light is:

Green

21. The lights shown by an aerodrome identification beacon at a land aerodrome shall be

Green colour identification given by Morse Code

22. The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air shall constitute an instruction to the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and continue circling is:

a continuous red beam

23. To an aircraft in flight/the air, a steady green light from aerodrome control means:

cleared to land

24. To an aircraft in the air, a series of white flashes from the Aerodrome Control Tower means:

land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron

25. To an aircraft on the ground, a series of red flashes from an aerodrome control tower means:

taxi clear of landing area in use

26. What does a flashing green light from the aerodrome control tower mean to an aircraft in flight?

Return for landing

27. While taxiing on an aerodrome you notice that the aerodrome control tower is flashing a red light at you. What does this mean?

Taxi clear of the landing area in use

28. Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:

must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time

29. You are in an aircraft at night and the aerodrome control tower begins to flash the taxi and runway lights, what do you do:

Vacate the runway and observe the tower for light signal

30. You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:

Do not land. Continue circling.

↑ back to topics

Sunrise, Sunset and Night Duty

12 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. "Night" is defined as the period:

15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise

2. According to the SACAA CARS Part 1.00.1, the definition of "night" is:

the period 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise

3. Choose the answer the best describes civil twilight:

Morning civil twilight starts when the sun is 6° below the horizon and ends at sunrise. Evening civil twilight starts at sunset and ends when the sun is 6° below the horizon

4. If official night started at 18:00 local time, what time did sunset take place?

17h45

5. If official night started at 18:40 LMT, that means that sunset occurred at:

18:25

6. If official night started at 18:40 LMT, that means that sunset was at:

18:25

7. If sunset occurs at 18:15 local mean time, official night will start at:

18:30

8. Night duty means a period of not less than 4 hours between:

20h00 to 06h00

9. The duration of civil twilight is the time:

between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon

10. The time of sunrise is given as 05h15 LMT (local mean time). Official night will end at:

05h00

11. What time will official night end if the time of sunrise is given as 05h05?

04h50

12. When is official night?

15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise

↑ back to topics

Temperature and Thermodynamics

9 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A temperature increase with altitude through a layer is called:

An inversion

2. An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature

increases with height

3. An inversion is:

an increase of temperature with height

4. It is possible for temperature to increase with height This is known as:

An inversion

5. The earth's surface reaches its maximum temperature at about:

1500 hours local time

6. The term "Inversion" is when:

there is an increase of temperature as height increases

7. The term "lapse rate" is used to describe:

decrease in temperature with altitude

8. What is meant by "inversion"?

Temperature increases as height increases

9. With clear skies, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature reached approximately:

Half an hour after sunrise

↑ back to topics

Vestibular Illusions

51 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action to prevent vertigo?

Depend on the instruments

2. A pilot will be more susceptible to spatial disorientation when:

The pilot makes use of his/her body signals or “seat-of-the-pants” flying to interpret flight attitude instead of referring to instruments

3. A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may get:

the illusion of climbing or descending

4. A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn, experiences:

Coriolis illusion

5. A state of temporary spatial confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is known as:

Spatial disorientation

6. A vestibular illusion that is typically associated with night flight is:

Pilot’s vertigo

7. A “Graveyard-Spin” is:

a spin in which the pilot, on recovery, tends to re-enter the spin due to the somatogyral illusion where the vestibular system no longer senses radial acceleration

8. Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of:

simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres

9. Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of:

“Pilot’s vertigo”

10. Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades

can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea

11. How can a pilot prevent pilot’s vertigo?

Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight manoeuvres and maintain an effective instrument cross check

12. How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?

Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check

13. How can pilot’s vertigo be overcome?

by relying solely on aircraft instruments

14. How can vertigo be prevented in conditions of good visibility?

By looking at the horizon

15. If a pilot becomes disorientated during a flight in IMC, she should:

rely on her aircraft's instruments to recover

16. If you are disorientated during night flying you must:

rely on instruments

17. If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:

continue on instruments

18. Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC:

can cause disorientation

19. Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of:

climbing

20. On experiencing a vestibular illusion in straight and level flight, it is recommended that:

you avoid head movements and rely on your instruments

21. Perceptual illusions are:

normal and can be prevented by trusting instrument read-out

22. Pilot’s vertigo can be caused by:

accelerations and/or sudden pressure changes in the inner ear (semi-circular canals)

23. Rapid acceleration may result in an illusion of pitching up:

Somatogravic illusion—trust your instruments

24. Spatial disorientation is the term used to describe that condition where the pilot:

is unable to perceive his/her position, attitude, and motion relative to the earth

25. Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight:

if the brain receives conflicting information and the pilot does not believe the instruments

26. Spatial Disorientation, also known as a condition in which a person is unable to perceive his/her position, attitude and motion relative to the earth:

can be aggravated if a pilot has an ear infection that affects his vestibular apparatus

27. Starting a co-ordinated level turn can make the pilot believe to:

climb

28. The "Leans" or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by:

Reducing bank following a prolonged turn

29. The illusion of the aircraft being banked in the opposite direction when in fact the wings are level is known as:

The leans

30. The illusion that is caused by suddenly rolling wings level following a gradual and prolonged turn:

Leans

31. The Leans or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by:

prolonging a turn

32. The risk of spatial disorientation increases when:

there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs

33. The sensation of tumbling backwards due to rapid acceleration is referred to as:

somatogravic/oculogravic illusion

34. The somatogravic illusion gives the pilot a false impression of:

climbing or descending

35. To prevent vertigo in flight we should

not move the head suddenly while we are turning

36. Vertigo is the result of:

Coriolis effect

37. What are the two different types of illusions?

Vestibular and visual

38. What can a pilot do to avoid Flicker vertigo when flying in the clouds?

Switch strobe-lights off

39. What can a pilot experience as a result of flicker vertigo?

Disorientation

40. What can cause spatial disorientation?

False perception of orientation of the aircraft with respect to spatial references

41. What do you do when you are affected by pilot’s vertigo?

1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

42. What is the correct action to counteract vertigo?

Believe the instruments

43. What would be the effect if, in a tight turn, one bends down to pick up a pencil?

Coriolis effect

44. When a pilot becomes spatially disorientated, he or she should rely on:

eyes/vision

45. When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a:

climb/pitch-up

46. When might a pilot have the sensation of a nose-low attitude?

When decelerating in straight, horizontal flight

47. Which flight-manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while:

banking

48. Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular system?

1, 4

49. Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular system?

Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft

50. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments

51. With vertigo the instrument panel seems to tumble. This is due to:

the Coriolis effect in the semi-circular canals

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VFR/IFR and VMC Minima

17 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A PIC (pilot in command) may conduct a special VFR flight in weather conditions below the conditions prescribed in regulation 91.06.21 within a control zone:

By day only

2. Every VFR flight by night shall:

Be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to identifiable objects and at no time above more than 3/8nof cloud within a radius of 5 NM of such aircraft

3. Except for take-off and landing, a VFR flight conducted at night:

Must be flown with visual reference to identifiable objects

4. Except for take-off and landing, a VFR flight conducted by night:

may be flown above 3 eighths of cloud within 5 nm from the aircraft

5. Is special VFR weather minima applicable at night?

Under no circumstances

6. Special VFR operations can be conducted within a Control Zone:

by day only

7. Special VFR over land by night is:

not permitted

8. Subject to all provisions, Special VFR operations may be done:

by day only

9. The minimum visibility required for a take-off by night in an aeroplane from an unmanned aerodrome is:

5 km

10. The minimum visibility required for a take-off by night in an aeroplane in a Control Zone is:

5 km

11. The required distance from clouds within a control zone under normal VFR conditions is:

600 meters horizontally and 500 feet vertically

12. What is the ground and flight visibility required for a flight in an ATZ?

5km

13. What is the horizontal distance from clouds required to maintain VFR, at or below 1500 feet above the surface in class C airspace, by night?

1500 m

14. What is the minimum required visibility to fly at FL105 in an aeroplane by night:

8 km

15. What is the required vertical distance from clouds to maintain VFR, at or below 1500 feet above the surface, by night and in uncontrolled airspace?

None. The aircraft needs to remain clear of cloud.

16. When you are at flight level 125 (FL125), what is the visibility required?

8km

17. When you are taking off from an airfield at night, what is the visibility required to continue?

5km

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Visual Illusions

51 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A narrower-than-usual runway can create an illusion that the aircraft is:

higher than it actually is, leading to a lower approach

2. A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when approaching to a narrow runway, that he/she is at a:

greater height than he is with the tendency to land short

3. A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a:

flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot

4. A pilot approaching an upslope runway:

may feel that he is higher than actual; this illusion may cause him to land short

5. A pilot is established on the approach to a runway much larger (wider) than what he is used to. The pilot’s perception will be:

The runway will appear closer than it actually is

6. A pilot is on final approach to an aerodrome on a particularly dark night with little to no ground references, the pilot will get the illusion of being:

Too high

7. A pilot is on the approach of an up-sloping runway with no visual approach aids (PAPI/VASI). Choose the scenario that does not apply to this situation:

A higher than normal approach may occur

8. A pilot is performing a visual approach on a down sloping runway with an inoperative PAPI light system. The pilot will likely end up:

Flying a steeper approach

9. A pilot is used to landing on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to:

an early or high “round out”

10. A pilot may get the illusion of low altitude on approach although the aircraft is on the correct glide path:

when the runway is wider than he is used to

11. A pilot on a normal approach to a narrow runway will get the impression that he/she is:

higher than normal on the descent

12. A pilot that is approaching to land at night at an unfamiliar runway in an area of featureless terrain with minimal ground features and external references and little illumination, will likely experience a feeling of being:

Too high

13. A shining light is fading out (i.e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot get?

The source of light moves away from him

14. A typical visual illusion that is associated with night flying:

a line of lights at an angle may be misinterpreted as a false horizon

15. A wider-than-usual runway can create an illusion that it is:

Closer than it really is

16. A wider-than-usual runway may result in:

high approach path being flown and landing hard or overshooting the runway

17. A “black hole” phenomenon may result in:

an approach that is shallower than normal

18. After staring at a stationary light in the night sky, a pilot notices that it appears to be moving in an oscillating fashion, the illusion is called:

autokinesis

19. Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can make the pilot believe he/she is:

higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short (ducking under)

20. Auto-kinesis can give the pilot the impression that:

a star is another aircraft

21. Auto-kinesis is:

the apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for are relatively long period of time in the dark

22. Auto-kinetic illusion is:

an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may - without a frame of reference – appear to move

23. How is haze affecting your perception?

Objects seem to be further away than in reality

24. If a pilot attempts to do a visual approach at a 3° approach path angle to an up-sloping runway with no visual approach aids (PAPI/VASI), he will most likely fly a/an:

shallower approach at an angle less than 3°

25. Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog or mist are that:

Objects appear further away than they really are and lead to shallow approaches

26. Select the correct statement:

If the runway is narrower than the normal one which the pilot is accustomed to, the pilot will fly a lower than normal approach with the possibility of landing short

27. Slant range visibility is generally:

Less than vertical visibility

28. State the conditions which cause the “black hole effect” and the danger to flight safety

The “black hole effect” can be caused by flying over water at night on the approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it is, leading to a low approach being flown

29. The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking visual cues other than those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of:

being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short

30. The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold. Possible danger is:

approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing

31. The effect of the “black hole” illusion while landing:

an illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is, leading to a lower approach

32. The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the dark is called

"autokinesis"

33. The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is:

a poor instrument cross-check and permanently transitioning back and forth between instruments and visual references

34. The presence of moisture on an aircraft’s windscreen will create the illusion of being:

higher than you really are

35. The scenario that will give the illusion that the aircraft is too low on the approach

A down sloping runway

36. The visual illusion, autokinesis, typically occurs when:

staring at a bright light against a dark night sky

37. The “black hole” phenomenon is a visual illusion that typically occurs when a pilot is flying on a dark night with only distant runway and airport lights visible. The visual illusion produces the feeling of:

an aircraft being higher than it actually is

38. To prevent the auto-kinetic phenomena, the following can be done:

look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using peripheral vision as well

39. What happens when a pilot experiences the 'black hole illusion'? The runway:

appears higher than it really is

40. What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapour)?

It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects

41. What is Autokinesis?

The apparent movement of a light source in an oscillating fashion against a dark background

42. What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying into fog, snow or haze?

Objects seem to be further away than in reality

43. When a pilot approaches to land on a runway that is narrower than he/she is used to, it may result in:

a high initial approach path, turning into a low approach with the possibility of undershooting

44. When a pilot is staring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark, he might get the illusion that:

the light is moving

45. When a pilot lands on a runway with dark patches and little ground references at night, she will experience an illusion of being:

too high

46. When the weather is foggy, on approach, a pilot may get a feeling of:

the airfield being further away than it actually is

47. When you stare at a single light against the dark (e.g. an isolated star) you will find the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is called:

auto kinetic phenomenon

48. Where will the black hole effect likely be experienced?

Desert

49. Which of the following statements is correct concerning flight in an environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness, haze)?

It is difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects.

50. You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27m), to an international airport (runway width 45m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:

high approach with overshoot

51. You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45m) to a small airfield (runway width 25m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:

low approach with undershoot

↑ back to topics

Visual Navigation Aids

45 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A pilot observes the following indication from a PAPI light system while on the approach to land at night. He/he is:

Too low

2. A pilot observes the following indication from a PAPI system while on the approach to land at night. He/she is:

Too high

3. A pilot sees the following indication from a PAPI light system while on the approach to land at night. He/she is:

On the correct glidepath

4. A VASI light system ensures obstacle clearance within a predetermined arc from the centreline up to a distance of:

4 nm

5. A VASI system ensures adequate obstacle clearance within degrees of arc measured as:

10° to the left or right of the centre line

6. An aircraft is on final approach to a runway equipped with a PAPI system; The pilot observes 3 red lights and one white light. The aircraft is:

Too low

7. An aircraft is on the approach at an aerodrome at night and all the VASI lights are indicating red. The aircraft is:

Below the correct glide slope

8. During an approach the PAPI displays four white lights on either side of the runway. That means that:

The aircraft is too close to the runway in relation to its height

9. During an approach to an aerodrome at night, the near bars of a VASI light system are white and the far bars are red. The situation of the aircraft is:

On the correct glide slope

10. During an approach to an aerodrome at night, the pilot notices that all the VASI lights are white. The situation of the aircraft is:

It is above the correct glide slope

11. How does a pilot see the PAPI wing bar lights, when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope?

All the four units are steady white

12. How many light units are in each wing bar of a T-VASIS or AT VASIS?

4

13. How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?

2

14. How wide is the arc within which a VASI system will provide obstacle clearance to the left or to the right of centreline?

10° either side

15. Identify the light system used in the runway image:

The image shows a PAPI light system

16. In the " PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:

On or close to the approach slope

17. In the VASIs how many light units are in each wing bar?

2 or 3

18. In the VASIs how many light units are in each wing bar?

3

19. Referring to the VASI light system in the figure, you are:

below the glidepath

20. Referring to the VASI light system in the figure, you are:

on glidepath

21. Referring to the VASI light system in the figure, you are:

above glidepath

22. The 2-Bar VASI light system provides a visual glidepath (glideslope) of:

3°

23. The abbreviation PAPI stands for:

Precision Approach Path Indicator

24. The edge lighting spacing on the runway appears to be decreasing while on the approach, you are:

Becoming low

25. The edge lighting spacing on the runway appears to be increasing while on the approach, you are:

Becoming high

26. The edge lighting spacing on the runway appears to stay the same while on the approach, you are:

On glideslope

27. The PAPI shall consist of:

Wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced

28. Up to what distance from the runway threshold does a VASI system provide obstacle clearance?

4 nm

29. What is the degree of coverage of the VASI system to the left and right of the centreline?

10 Degrees

30. When a 2-Bar VASI light system displays two red bars, the lights indicate that the aircraft is:

too low

31. When a single set of PAPI lights is installed at an aerodrome you would expect the installation to be on:

The left side of the runway

32. When on or close to the approach slope, the wing bar of a PAPI shows:

two red lights and two white lights

33. When pilot on an approach sees 2 white and 2 red lights on the final approach it means he is:

On the correct approach path

34. Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator:

Wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so

35. Which sets of bars should a pilot of a small aeroplane refer to in a three-bar VASI system?

Bottom bar and middle bar

36. While an aircraft is on final approach to a runway equipped with a VASI lights system, the pilot sees the near and far bars are both coloured red. The aircraft is:

Below the correct glide slope

37. While on an approach, the edge lighting spacing on a runway appears to be decreasing. This could indicate that the pilot is:

becoming low

38. While on an approach, the edge lighting spacing on a runway appears to be increasing. This could indicate that the pilot is:

becoming high

39. While on an approach, the edge lighting spacing on a runway appears to stay the same. This could indicate that the pilot is:

on glideslope

40. While on the approach and referring to your PAPI light system, you observe four red lights. This indicates:

you are too low

41. While on the approach and referring to your PAPI light system, you observe four white lights. This indicates that:

you are too high

42. While on the approach and referring to your PAPI light system, you observe three red lights and one white light. This indicates:

you are slightly low

43. While on the approach and referring to your PAPI light system, you observe three white lights and one red light. This indicates:

you are slightly high

44. You are on final approach to a runway with a PAPI lighting system. You observe the left bank of lights indicating three white lights and one red, and the right hand bank of lights indicating three red and one white. Your actions would be:

Ignore the PAPI system altogether

45. You are on the final approach to a runway with a standard PAPI system. The two rows of lights closest to the runway are indicating white. Your action should be to:

Increase the rate of descent as you are above the glide slope

↑ back to topics

Wind

22 questions · ↑ back to topics

1. A katabatic wind is a wind which:

Flows down a hill or mountain mainly during the night

2. A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows

down the slope during the night

3. An anabatic wind is a wind which:

Flows up a hill or mountain mainly during the day

4. Anabatic winds occur:

During the day

5. Compared to the surface winds during the day, the winds at night tend to (Northern Hemisphere):

Decrease and Back

6. Compared to the surface winds during the day, the winds at night tend to (Southern Hemisphere):

Decrease and Veer

7. If the wind changes direction from 320° to 015°, this is known as:

Veering

8. Katabatic wind is

a flow of cold air down the slope of a mountain

9. Katabatic winds are:

Winds that blows down a slope because of gravity. They occur at night, when the highlands radiate heat and are cooled

10. Katabatic winds occur:

At night

11. Surface wind speed at night is usually ______ compared to surface winds during the day.

Weaker

12. The surface winds at night are likely to be:

Weaker than surface winds during the day

13. The term "backing" refers to:

wind that is changing direction in an anti-clockwise direction

14. The term "veering" refers to:

wind that is changing direction in a clockwise direction

15. The wind which results from air cooling on the side of a valley is known as:

A katabatic wind

16. The wind which results from the warming on the side of a valley is known as:

An anabatic wind

17. What is a cold breeze that blows down a mountain slope known as?

A katabatic wind

18. What type of wind is to be expected during the winter on mountain slopes not exposed to the sun?

Katabatic

19. When flying at night, it can be expected that the surface wind will be:

Weaker than the surface wind during the day

20. When flying at night, which of the following winds can you expect on a valley slope?

Katabatic, blowing downslope

21. Which type wind flows down slope becoming warmer and dryer?

Katabatic wind

22. You are flying towards a mountainous area at night, the kind of winds you could expect are:

Katabatic winds moving downwards

↑ back to topics